Nurse Karen is caring for a client with chronic renal failure. Which is a correct intervention for hyperkalemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hyperkalemia presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, diarrhea, and ECG changes. Muscle weakness is a common sign due to potassium's effect on neuromuscular function. Diarrhea can lead to potassium loss. ECG changes, such as peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes, indicate cardiac involvement. Assessing for these symptoms helps monitor the severity of hyperkalemia and guide treatment. Other choices are incorrect because assessing for fever and chest pain (choice A) are not specific to hyperkalemia. Encouraging fluid restriction (choice C) may not directly address hyperkalemia. Preparing for a cardiac ultrasound (choice D) is not an immediate intervention for hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocortisolism. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed or partially removed, leading to decreased cortisol production. Signs of hypocortisolism include weakness, fatigue, hypotension, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Hyperglycemia (B) is not typically associated with this procedure. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a common concern post-hypophysectomy. Hypercalcemia (D) is not directly related to pituitary gland removal. Therefore, assessing for hypocortisolism is crucial for early detection and management post-surgery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis. With a serum glucose level of 618mg/dl, the client is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, leading to excessive urination (osmotic diuresis) and dehydration. The priority is to address fluid volume deficit to prevent hypovolemic shock. The other options are not the priority because: B: Decreased cardiac output is a result of the increased heart rate, not the primary issue. C: Imbalanced nutrition is important but not as urgent as fluid volume deficit. D: Ineffective thermoregulation is a concern but not the priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aphasia. Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person's ability to communicate and understand speech. In this case, Mr. Dela Isla's difficulty in comprehending what the nurse was saying indicates a problem with language processing, which aligns with the symptoms of aphasia. Insomnia (A) is a sleep disorder, not related to language comprehension. Agnosia (B) is a perception disorder where someone cannot recognize objects or people, not related to language. Apraxia (C) is a motor disorder affecting the ability to perform purposeful movements, not related to language comprehension.