ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nurse Angie added that oral contraceptives also contains progesterone. Which of the following is the action of progesterone in contraception? It inhibits _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone in oral contraceptives works primarily by inhibiting ovulation. It suppresses the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for triggering the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By blocking ovulation, progesterone helps prevent pregnancy by making it less likely for a mature egg to be available for fertilization. This mechanism of action is a key factor in the effectiveness of progesterone-containing contraceptives in preventing pregnancy.
Question 2 of 9
Based on her knowledge on otitis media, Nurse Selma recalls that children are predisposed to AOM due to the following rish factors, EXCEPT ______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Breastfeeding is actually a protective factor against acute otitis media (AOM) in children due to the antibodies and nutrients present in breast milk that help strengthen the immune system and the Eustachian tube function. Swimming, exposure to cigarette smoke, and poor hygiene are all risk factors for AOM. Swimming can introduce water into the ears, which can lead to infections. Exposure to cigarette smoke can irritate the mucous membranes in the respiratory tract and increase the risk of infections. Poor hygiene can lead to the spread of bacteria that can cause AOM.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by a localized collection of pus resulting from a bacterial infection of the tooth pulp?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A dental abscess is characterized by a localized collection of pus that results from a bacterial infection of the tooth pulp, leading to swelling, pain, and inflammation. The infection typically occurs when bacteria enter the tooth through a cavity, crack, or other dental injury. The abscess can cause significant pain and discomfort and must be treated promptly by a dentist to prevent further complications. Dental caries refer to tooth decay or cavities that result from the breakdown of tooth structure by acids produced by bacteria. Periodontitis is a severe gum infection that damages the soft tissue and destroys the bone that supports the teeth. Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection that affects the mouth and throat.
Question 4 of 9
In the care of families, crisis intervention is an important part of _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crisis intervention is an important part of secondary prevention in the care of families. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to reduce the impact of a crisis or event that has already occurred. Crisis intervention provides immediate support and strategies to help families cope with and overcome a crisis situation. By addressing the crisis quickly and effectively, secondary prevention can help prevent further negative outcomes and promote the well-being of the family members.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with gradual-onset weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, and positive Babinski sign. Imaging reveals demyelinating plaques in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described - gradual-onset weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, positive Babinski sign, and demyelinating plaques in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord - are indicative of multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is an autoimmune disease where the body's immune system attacks the myelin sheath, leading to the formation of plaques in the central nervous system. The characteristic symptoms of MS include weakness, spasticity (stiffness in muscles), hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses), and positive Babinski sign (upward movement of the big toe). While ALS (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) presents with progressive muscle weakness and atrophy without sensory involvement and demyelinating plaques, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is typically an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy affecting peripheral nerves rather than the central nervous system, and myast
Question 6 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with selective IgA deficiency, a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Selective IgA deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by low or absent levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the blood. Since IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a more severe immunodeficiency disorder affecting T and B lymphocytes, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a disorder of phagocytes, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disease involving red blood cells, none of which are directly associated with selective IgA deficiency.
Question 7 of 9
The BEST example of how the nurse can create a climate in which clients do not feel threatened is by teaching on a topic about:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best example of how the nurse can create a climate in which clients do not feel threatened is by teaching on good nutrition while providing a meal. This approach not only addresses an important topic that is beneficial for the clients but also creates a comfortable and welcoming atmosphere. By offering a meal, the nurse is able to engage the clients in a familiar and non-threatening activity, making them more receptive to the information being shared. Additionally, sharing a meal can help to build rapport and create a sense of community among the clients and the nurse, leading to a more positive learning experience.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described, involving multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in the genital area, is classic for herpes simplex genitalis. This condition is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicles in the genital or perianal area. The history of similar lesions occurring during periods of stress is also suggestive of herpes simplex virus reactivation. Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) typically present as painless, fleshy growths in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Syphilis manifests as a painless ulcer known as a chancre, which is not described in the presentation. Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, rather than vesicles.
Question 9 of 9
There are pre operative medications given to the patient. Which of the following druugs are given in order to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is given pre-operatively to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and post-operative pain. It is a common analgesic that can help reduce the amount of intra-operative anesthesia needed and provide some pain relief during the surgery. Unlike drugs like Celebrex, Ibuprofen, and Demerol, Acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties, but it is effective in managing pain and can contribute to overall pain control before, during, and after surgery. This makes it a preferred choice for pre-operative medication in order to decrease the need for higher doses of anesthetics and reduce post-operative pain levels.