Non - complete phagocytosis is observed during infections with:

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Non - complete phagocytosis is observed during infections with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Brucella melitensis can evade complete phagocytosis. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion. 3. Legionella pneumophila can prevent phagosome maturation. 4. Brucella melitensis can survive and replicate within phagocytes. 5. A + B + C together represent non-complete phagocytosis. Summary: - A, B, C individually cause incomplete phagocytosis. - Only when all three are present together (D) is non-complete phagocytosis observed.

Question 2 of 9

The function of beta-lactamase in bacteria is to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Break down antibiotics like penicillin. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by bacteria to inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin by breaking the beta-lactam ring. This mechanism helps bacteria resist the antibiotic's effects. The other choices are incorrect because beta-lactamase does not enhance protein synthesis, facilitate DNA replication, or transport nutrients. It specifically targets and deactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, making choice A the most appropriate answer.

Question 3 of 9

After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine. What drug could cause such changes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Question 4 of 9

A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.

Question 5 of 9

The specific prevention (by vaccination) of the disease gas gangrene (caused by Clostridium perfringens) is based on:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Question 6 of 9

A disease that is generally present in a given population is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: endemic. Endemic refers to a disease that is consistently present in a particular population or region at a relatively stable level. This means the disease is always present in that specific area. Pandemic (A) refers to a disease that spreads across multiple countries or continents. Epidemic (B) refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population. Sporadic (C) refers to occasional cases of a disease occurring irregularly in a population. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it specifically describes a disease that is generally present in a given population.

Question 7 of 9

Which one is true for enteropathogenic E.coli?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) have fimbrial adhesins that help them bind to enterocytes in the intestines, leading to colonization and infection. This is a key virulence factor of EPEC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: EPEC typically cause watery diarrhea in infants, not bloody diarrhea similar to shigellosis. C: EPEC are not part of the normal intestinal flora; they are pathogenic bacteria. D: EPEC are not invasive and do not typically produce enterotoxin; they primarily adhere to the intestinal epithelium.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacteria is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesive factors that enable it to attach to the bladder and cause infection. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, none of which are typically associated with UTIs. E. coli's prevalence in the gut and its pathogenic mechanisms make it the leading cause of UTIs.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with convulsive contractions of facial muscles was admitted to the infectious disease ward. From a scratch on his lower right extremity analysts isolated bacteria with terminal endospores that gave them drumstick appearance. What bacteria are compliant with given description?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A - Clostridium tetani): 1. The patient has convulsive contractions of facial muscles, indicating tetanus. 2. Isolation of bacteria with terminal endospores that have a drumstick appearance is characteristic of Clostridium tetani. 3. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin causing muscle spasms. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is Clostridium tetani (A). Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not tetanus. C: Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not tetanus. D: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not tetanus.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days