Non - complete phagocytosis is observed during infections with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Brucella melitensis can evade complete phagocytosis. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion. 3. Legionella pneumophila can prevent phagosome maturation. 4. Brucella melitensis can survive and replicate within phagocytes. 5. A + B + C together represent non-complete phagocytosis. Summary: - A, B, C individually cause incomplete phagocytosis. - Only when all three are present together (D) is non-complete phagocytosis observed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis. Step 2: It is sexually transmitted and can cause various stages of disease. Step 3: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not syphilis. Step 4: Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, not syphilis. Step 5: Escherichia coli is a common gut bacterium and not responsible for syphilis. Treponema pallidum is the correct answer as it is the specific bacterium known to cause syphilis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenovirus. Adenovirus commonly causes acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever. Adenovirus is known to cause respiratory infections and can present with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus) causes chickenpox and shingles, not these specific symptoms. Measles virus causes a systemic illness with characteristic rash, not typically pharyngitis. Rubella virus causes a mild febrile illness with rash, but not pharyngitis. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation described, adenovirus is the most likely cause.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lipopolysaccharides. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are major components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and are known to have endotoxic activity. LPS can trigger a strong immune response leading to inflammation and septic shock. Choice B, Lipoproteins of Braun, are not known to have endotoxic activity. Choice C, Protein A, is a surface protein found in Staphylococcus aureus and is not associated with endotoxic activity. Choice D, None, is incorrect as LPS is indeed a bacterial structure with endotoxic activity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram's staining method. The rationale for this is as follows: Gentian violet and Lugol's solution are used as primary and mordant stains in the Gram's staining method. Spiritus 960 is used as a decolorizer, and water fuchsin is used as a counterstain. This staining method is commonly used in microbiology to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on their cell wall characteristics. A: Leffler's staining method is used for the identification of diphtheria bacilli. C: Ziehl-Neelsen's staining method is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D: Neisser's staining method is used for the identification of Neisseria species. In summary, the use of specific reactives and stainers in the question indicates the application of the Gram's staining method for bacterial differentiation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporotrichosis. Sporotrichosis is caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii, which commonly presents as a subcutaneous infection. In the given case, the presence of a small abscess with yellowish-green pus containing white granules is indicative of sporotrichosis. The histological examination showing drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, and macrophages further supports the diagnosis of sporotrichosis. Choice A: Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection. Choice B: Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus species and typically presents as a pulmonary infection, not a subcutaneous abscess as described in the case. Choice C: Candidosis is caused by Candida species and usually presents as mucocutaneous infections, not a subcutaneous abscess with the