ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in what way?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because nociceptors are specialized nerve receptors that do not adapt much to continual pain response. This lack of adaptation allows nociceptors to continuously signal the presence of tissue-damaging stimuli, which is crucial for the perception of pain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nociceptors do not inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils (B), they do play a role in the inflammatory response (C), and they transmit various types of stimuli including thermal, mechanical, and chemical, not just thermal stimuli (D).
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of aa bc iru bt .ce o mre /ts ep sti ratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient admitted with respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator would cue the nurse to the potential of ARDS in a patient with respiratory distress. ARDS is characterized by severe respiratory failure with bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. An increase in peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator indicates that the lungs are becoming stiffer, which is a common finding in ARDS due to increased inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli. This finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of ARDS and the need for further assessment and intervention. Summary of other choices: A: Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is a nonspecific finding and may not specifically indicate ARDS. C: Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures is more indicative of heart failure rather than ARDS. D: PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300 is a criterion used to diagnose ARDS, but a value higher than 300 actually indicates mild ARDS, so it would not necessarily cue the nurse
Question 3 of 9
What strategies are appropriate for preventing deep vein tharboirbm.cbomo/steisst (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE) in an at-risk patient? (Select all that apply.) WWW .THENURSINGMASTERY.COM
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Graduated compression stockings. These stockings help prevent blood from pooling in the legs, reducing the risk of DVT and PE. They improve circulation and reduce venous stasis. Option B, heparin, is used for treatment, not prevention. Option C, sequential compression devices, help prevent DVT but are not as effective as compression stockings. Option D, strict bed rest, can actually increase the risk of DVT by reducing blood flow.
Question 4 of 9
Which nursing actions for the care of a dying patient can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing postmortem care to a dying patient is a task that can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN. This includes tasks such as preparing the body, cleaning, and positioning after death. LPNs/LVNs are trained and competent in performing these duties under the supervision of a registered nurse or physician. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve critical thinking, assessment, and teaching skills that are typically within the scope of practice of a registered nurse. Encouraging family members to talk with the patient, determining assessment frequency, and educating about signs of approaching death require a higher level of nursing judgment and expertise, which is beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN's role.
Question 5 of 9
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Renal dysfunction is common in critically ill patients due to various factors like sepsis, hypotension, and nephrotoxic medications. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, making it a significant issue in critical care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A is wrong because renal dysfunction is not rare in critically ill patients. C is incorrect as renal replacement therapy does not guarantee low mortality rates. D is inaccurate as renal dysfunction can have a significant impact on morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
Question 6 of 9
To prevent any unwanted resuscitation after life-sustaininga btirrbe.acotmm/teenstt s have been withdrawn, the nurse should ensure that what intervention has been im plemented?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because writing DNR orders before discontinuation of life-sustaining treatments ensures clear communication and legal documentation of the patient's wishes. Choice B is incorrect as family support is essential in end-of-life care. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders should be established before withdrawing treatment. Choice D is incorrect as the DNR order should be in place before shift change for immediate implementation if needed.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse notes premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) while suctioning a patient’s endotracheal tube. Which action by the nurse is a priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen. This is the priority action because PVCs can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias and inadequate oxygenation. By stopping suctioning and providing 100% oxygen, the nurse ensures proper oxygenation and ventilation, which takes precedence over addressing the dysrhythmia itself. Decreasing suction pressure (choice A) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially harm the patient. Documenting the dysrhythmia (choice B) is important but not as urgent as ensuring adequate oxygenation. Giving antidysrhythmic medications (choice D) should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider and is not the first-line intervention in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
The nursing is caring for a patient who has had an arterial line inserted. To reduce the risk of complications, what is the priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain a portable x-ray to confirm placement. This is the priority intervention because it ensures the arterial line is correctly positioned, reducing the risk of complications such as dislodgement or improper placement. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority. Ensuring tubing connections are tightened (choice B) is important for preventing leaks but does not address placement. Restraining the affected extremity (choice D) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. The x-ray confirms correct placement, ensuring accurate monitoring and treatment.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The patient's symptoms of general malaise, fatigue, decreased urinary output, along with the presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicate kidney damage. Acute tubular necrosis is a common cause of acute kidney injury characterized by damage to the renal tubules, leading to impaired kidney function. The presence of granular casts and hematuria suggests tubular injury and bleeding within the kidney. Choices A and B are incorrect as they refer to prerenal and postrenal causes of kidney injury, respectively, which do not align with the patient's symptoms and urinalysis findings. Choice D is incorrect as a urinary tract infection would typically present with different symptoms and urinalysis findings.