Nicotinic acid

Questions 52

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Drugs for Cardiovascular Disease Questions

Question 1 of 5

Nicotinic acid

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a medication commonly used to manage dyslipidemia in patients with cardiovascular disease. The correct answer is D) All of the above. Explanation: A) Nicotinic acid decreases the production of VLDL (Very Low-Density Lipoprotein) in the liver. VLDL is a type of lipoprotein that carries triglycerides, and inhibiting its production helps in reducing triglyceride levels. B) Nicotinic acid decreases LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein) levels by inhibiting the synthesis of VLDL, which is a precursor to LDL. Lowering LDL levels is crucial in reducing the risk of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular events. C) Nicotinic acid increases HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein) levels by promoting the reverse cholesterol transport pathway, leading to the removal of excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues and its transport back to the liver for excretion. Higher HDL levels are associated with a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease. Educational Context: Understanding the effects of nicotinic acid on lipid levels is essential for healthcare professionals managing patients with dyslipidemia and cardiovascular disease. By knowing how nicotinic acid influences VLDL, LDL, and HDL levels, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about treatment options and tailor therapy to individual patient needs. This knowledge is crucial for optimizing patient outcomes and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events.

Question 2 of 5

The client is on a blood thinner and is experiencing tinnitus. Which drug is the client likely taking?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Aspirin. Tinnitus, the perception of ringing in the ears, can be a side effect of aspirin, especially at higher doses. Aspirin is a common blood thinner used for its antiplatelet effects in cardiovascular disease. Option A) Pradaxa is a direct oral anticoagulant but is not typically associated with tinnitus as a side effect. Option C) Heparin is a different type of anticoagulant that is usually given intravenously or subcutaneously, and tinnitus is not a common side effect. Option D) Warfarin is an anticoagulant that can cause many side effects, but tinnitus is not a primary one. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. By linking specific symptoms like tinnitus to certain drugs, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about medication management and potential adverse effects. This knowledge ensures patient safety and contributes to better overall outcomes in the management of cardiovascular diseases.

Question 3 of 5

A 28-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant with her first child is admitted to the hospital for monitoring and intravenous fluid hydration. Which of the following agents prevents the development of preterm labor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Terbutaline. Terbutaline is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that is used to prevent preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. During pregnancy, the uterus can contract prematurely, leading to preterm labor, and terbutaline helps to inhibit these contractions, thereby preventing preterm birth. Option A) Albuterol is also a beta-2 adrenergic agonist like terbutaline, but it is primarily used for treating asthma and not indicated for preventing preterm labor in pregnant women. Option B) Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist and is not used to prevent preterm labor. It is more commonly used to treat bradycardia or heart block. Option D) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker and is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially for preventing preterm labor, as it can cause adverse effects on fetal development and is not indicated for this purpose. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate pharmacological agents for specific conditions is crucial for healthcare providers, especially when managing pregnant patients. Knowing the mechanism of action and indications of drugs like terbutaline can help prevent complications and ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the developing fetus. It highlights the importance of evidence-based practice and personalized care in the field of maternal-fetal medicine.

Question 4 of 5

An IRB-approved animal study involves injection of acetylcholine into the myocardium of a dog to study cardiac changes. Which of the following effects would likely be observed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In an IRB-approved animal study involving the injection of acetylcholine into the myocardium of a dog, the likely effect observed would be a decreased cardiac output. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that acts on muscarinic receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate and contractility. The correct answer (A) is supported by the fact that acetylcholine, when acting on the heart, causes a negative inotropic effect, which decreases the force of contraction and subsequently reduces cardiac output. This is due to the activation of muscarinic receptors in the heart, which mediate parasympathetic effects. Option B, increased contractility, is incorrect because acetylcholine actually decreases contractility by inhibiting sympathetic activity. Option C, increased heart rate, is also incorrect because acetylcholine typically decreases heart rate by slowing down the firing of the sinoatrial node, the heart's natural pacemaker. Option D, increased stroke volume, is incorrect because acetylcholine's negative inotropic effect would lead to a decrease rather than an increase in stroke volume. From an educational standpoint, understanding the effects of neurotransmitters on the heart is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the treatment of cardiovascular diseases. This knowledge helps in predicting how various drugs or interventions may impact cardiac function and aids in making informed clinical decisions.

Question 5 of 5

A 53-year-old woman with long-standing hypertension has already been treated with a ß-blocker and a calcium channel blocker, which have failed to control her blood pressure. She is now treated with losartan. Which of the following statements is correct regarding its pharmacokinetics?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C) Extensive first-pass metabolism. Explanation: 1. **Why C is correct**: Losartan undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver by the enzyme CYP3A4 to its active metabolite, E-3174. This metabolite is responsible for most of the drug's effects on blood pressure regulation. 2. **Why others are wrong**: - A) Losartan is not converted to an inactive metabolite. Instead, it is converted to an active metabolite. - B) Losartan is primarily eliminated in the urine and feces, not via skin loss. - D) Losartan has a high binding affinity to plasma proteins, specifically albumin, which limits its distribution into tissues. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacokinetics of drugs used in cardiovascular diseases is crucial for healthcare providers to optimize treatment and manage potential drug interactions and adverse effects. Losartan's metabolism pathway highlights the importance of liver function in drug processing and the impact on therapeutic outcomes. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions for patient care and medication management.

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