Native microscopic slides are good for observation of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Motility. Native microscopic slides are ideal for observing motility because they allow for the observation of living microorganisms in their natural state. By observing the movement of microorganisms on a native slide, one can assess their motility characteristics accurately. Choice B (Division) is incorrect because native slides may not provide the ideal conditions for observing cell division, as it may be difficult to capture the exact moment of division in a live organism. Choice C (Presence of capsules) is also incorrect because observing capsules usually requires specific staining techniques that may not be suitable for native slides. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as native slides are indeed beneficial for observing motility.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Interferon delta is not a known type of interferon, making choice D incorrect. Interferon beta is indeed produced by fibroblasts (choice A), interferon alpha by leukocytes (choice B), and interferon gamma by lymphocytes (choice C). Each type of interferon is produced by specific cells in the immune system, contributing to the body's defense against viruses and other pathogens.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS). In the Gram staining technique, these bacteria appear pink/red due to the thin peptidoglycan layer, which allows the crystal violet stain to be washed out, revealing the safranin counterstain. Gram-positive bacteria (choice A) have a thick peptidoglycan layer but lack an outer membrane with LPS. Choice C is incorrect since only Gram-negative bacteria possess LPS in their outer membrane. Choice D is incorrect as all bacteria can be classified as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall structure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ allows direct visualization of bacteria causing the infection. 2. Microscopic examination of urine for organisms can help identify any bacteria present in the urinary tract. 3. Both methods are specific for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as biopsy is invasive and not typically used for diagnosing bacterial infections. - Choice C is incorrect as fecal samples and urine protein tests are not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. - Choice D is incorrect as antibody agglutination and coagulation tests are not primary methods for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG vaccination. The Mantoux test is used to detect tuberculosis infection. A negative reaction means the child is not infected. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals without prior TB infection to prevent severe forms of the disease. Antitoxin and rabies vaccinations are not related to TB and are not indicated in this scenario. Repeating the Mantoux test is unnecessary since a negative result indicates absence of TB infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the secondary immune response is quicker due to memory B and T cells being already present from the primary response. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure, leading to a faster and more efficient immune response. Choices B and C are incorrect as the secondary response produces more antibodies and requires fewer antigen stimulations. Choice D is also incorrect as the secondary response is faster than the primary response.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium known for its green-blue pigmentation and sweet, fruity odor. The large colorless mucous colonies that develop green-blue pigmentation and honey or jasmine smell point towards Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterioscopy revealing gram-negative lophotrichea further supports this identification. Proteus vulgaris and Klebsiella osaenae do not typically exhibit the described characteristics. Streptomyces griseus is a soil bacterium known for its antibiotic production and is not commonly associated with wound infections.