Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat dermatomycosis:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrios. Vibrios are gram-negative curved bacteria that are motile and do not form spores or capsules. The description of the bacteria in the question fits the characteristics of Vibrios. Vibrios are commonly found in aquatic environments and some species can cause gastrointestinal infections in humans. B: Spirochetes are also gram-negative curved bacteria, but they are spiral-shaped and have unique axial filaments for motility. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of spirochetes. C: Clostridia are gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria. The question specifically states that the bacteria are gram-negative and do not form spores, ruling out Clostridia. D: Corynebacteria are gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of Corynebacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. This bacterium is known for causing tetanus due to its ability to produce tetanospasmin, a neurotoxin that leads to the characteristic muscle stiffness and spasms seen in tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) is associated with gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice C) causes streptococcal infections, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) is known for causing various gastrointestinal infections. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the causative agents of tetanus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: protein filaments made of flagellin. Bacterial flagella are composed of flagellin proteins arranged in helical filaments. This structure allows for movement and propulsion of bacteria. A: 9+2 microtubule arrangement is incorrect because this structure is typically found in eukaryotic flagella, not bacterial flagella. C: Lipid bilayer is incorrect as it is a structural component of cell membranes, not bacterial flagella. D: Peptidoglycan layer is incorrect as it is a component of bacterial cell walls, not flagella.