Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat dermatomycosis:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: young adults. Young adults are at a higher risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to factors such as engaging in risky sexual behaviors, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use. They are more likely to have multiple sexual partners and are less likely to seek regular STI screenings. Adolescents, while also at risk, may not make up almost half of all STI cases in the U.S. The elderly, on the other hand, are generally at a lower risk due to lower levels of sexual activity compared to young adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flaviviridae. Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family because it is a flavivirus. Flaviviruses are a group of RNA viruses known to cause diseases in humans, such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever. This family is characterized by its single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome and enveloped virion structure. Hepadnaviridae (choice A), Parvoviridae (choice B), and Picornaviridae (choice D) are all different families of viruses that do not include the dengue virus. Hepadnaviridae includes hepatitis B virus, Parvoviridae includes parvoviruses, and Picornaviridae includes enteroviruses like poliovirus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cytoplasmic membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the fluidlike portion of a cell that separates the cell's contents from the external environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintains cell shape, and provides protection. Rationale: 1. Cytosol (choice A) is the liquid component of the cytoplasm where organelles are suspended, not the fluidlike portion of the cell. 2. Nucleoplasm (choice B) refers to the liquid component of the nucleus, not the entire cell. 3. Inclusion (choice D) refers to non-living substances within the cell that are not considered the fluidlike portion. Summary: The cytoplasmic membrane is the correct answer as it encompasses the entire cell and is responsible for maintaining cell integrity and regulating transport. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the fluidlike portion of the cell.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus known to cause bacterial meningitis, presenting with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. It is a common cause of meningitis in young adults and teenagers. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-positive bacteria and a common cause of bacterial pneumonia, not meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae (C) is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause meningitis, but it is less common in adults. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus known to cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not meningitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: prions. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Prions are not viruses like flavoviruses (A) or orthomyxoviruses (D). Virusoids (B) are small, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules that require a helper virus to replicate and are not associated with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. Therefore, the correct answer is C as prions are the only choice that correctly links to the etiology of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.