NADPH is a product of the hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) in the red blood cell. The NADPH is used for the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of hematological drugs, understanding the role of NADPH in the hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) is crucial for comprehending red blood cell function. NADPH is utilized for the reduction of glutathione, which is essential for protecting red blood cells from oxidative damage. Glutathione acts as an antioxidant in the cell, scavenging reactive oxygen species and maintaining cellular redox balance. This process is particularly important in red blood cells, which are constantly exposed to oxidative stress due to their role in oxygen transport. Option A, synthesis of fatty acids, is incorrect as NADPH is not directly involved in this process. Fatty acid synthesis primarily requires NADPH generated through other pathways such as the malic enzyme or the pentose phosphate pathway. Option C, formation of ATP, is incorrect because NADPH is not directly involved in ATP production. ATP synthesis primarily occurs through processes like glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation, where NADH plays a critical role. Option D, removal of oxygen radicals, is incorrect because NADPH itself does not directly remove oxygen radicals. Instead, NADPH is utilized to regenerate reduced glutathione, which in turn helps to neutralize oxygen radicals and protect the cell from oxidative damage. Understanding the specific role of NADPH in the reduction of glutathione not only enhances knowledge of red blood cell physiology but also underscores the importance of maintaining cellular redox balance in overall hematological health. This knowledge is fundamental for healthcare professionals involved in managing hematological conditions and prescribing appropriate treatments, including hematological drugs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Absorption is better in the ferrous form than in ferric form. This statement is true because iron is predominantly absorbed in the duodenum and upper jejunum in the small intestine. In the ferrous form, iron is more readily absorbed compared to the ferric form. Ferrous iron can be directly absorbed by the enterocytes lining the intestinal mucosa, while ferric iron needs to be converted to the ferrous form by stomach acid or vitamin C before absorption can occur. Option A) Absorption occurs in the large intestine is incorrect because iron absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine, specifically in the duodenum and upper jejunum. Option B) Intrinsic factor is necessary for iron absorption is incorrect because intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12, not iron. Option D) Absorption is increased in hereditary haemochromatosis is incorrect because in hereditary haemochromatosis, there is actually excessive iron absorption leading to iron overload, not increased absorption of oral iron supplements specifically. Understanding the absorption of oral iron supplements is crucial for healthcare professionals when managing patients with iron deficiency anemia. Knowing the optimal form of iron for absorption can help ensure effective treatment and improve patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is A) Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow and quickly moves into the blood. The symptoms described in the question, such as weakness, lassitude, fatigue, and the presence of myeloblasts in the bone marrow aspirate, are indicative of AML. The reduced erythropoiesis seen in the bone marrow aspirate also points towards AML as it affects the production of all types of blood cells including red blood cells. Now let's look at why the other options are incorrect: B) Acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL) primarily affects lymphoid cells, not myeloid cells. The symptoms and bone marrow findings described in the question are more indicative of a myeloid disorder. C) Myelofibrosis is characterized by the replacement of bone marrow tissue with fibrous scar tissue, leading to anemia, fatigue, and an enlarged spleen. It typically presents differently than the symptoms described in the question. D) Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) is a group of disorders where the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells. While MDS can present with similar symptoms, the presence of myeloblasts in the bone marrow aspirate is more indicative of AML. Educationally, understanding the differentiation between hematological disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Knowing the clinical presentation, diagnostic findings, and underlying pathophysiology of conditions like AML, ALL, myelofibrosis, and MDS is vital for healthcare professionals involved in the care of patients with hematological issues. This knowledge helps in providing appropriate and timely interventions to improve patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the case of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), the most important criteria for diagnosis is absolute lymphocytosis, making option B the correct answer. Absolute lymphocytosis refers to an increased number of lymphocytes in the blood, which is a hallmark feature of CLL. This finding is crucial for distinguishing CLL from other conditions and plays a central role in the diagnostic process. Option A, the presence of hypogammaglobulinemia, is not the most important criterion for diagnosing CLL, although it may be seen in some cases. Option C, male predominance, is not a diagnostic criterion but rather an epidemiological characteristic of CLL, as it tends to affect males more commonly than females. Option D, the presence of enlarged lymph nodes, is a common feature of CLL but not the most crucial diagnostic criterion. In an educational context, understanding the key diagnostic criteria for CLL is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the assessment and management of patients with hematological disorders. By recognizing the importance of absolute lymphocytosis in CLL diagnosis, healthcare providers can expedite appropriate treatment and monitoring strategies for patients with this condition. This knowledge is crucial for delivering optimal care and improving patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) B cell phenotype is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). This is because NHL is a heterogeneous group of lymphoid malignancies that arise from B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells. B cell lymphomas are more prevalent in comparison to T cell lymphomas. Understanding the predominant cell type involved in NHL is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Option A) Classical Reed Sternberg (RS) cells are neoplastic cells is incorrect because RS cells are actually characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma, not non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Option C) Contiguous group of lymph nodes are affected is incorrect because NHL can involve lymph nodes that are not contiguous, unlike Hodgkin lymphoma which typically spreads from one group of lymph nodes to the next in a contiguous manner. Option D) It is not associated with leukaemic phase of disease is incorrect because some subtypes of NHL can indeed present with a leukemic phase where abnormal lymphocytes are found in the peripheral blood. Educationally, understanding the different types of lymphomas and their characteristic features is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the diagnosis and management of hematological disorders. Recognizing the distinctions between Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas helps in providing appropriate care and improving patient outcomes.