N. Meningitidis grows on

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chocolate agar. Neisseria meningitidis is a fastidious organism that requires enriched media for growth. Chocolate agar contains heat-treated blood that provides essential nutrients for the growth of N. meningitidis. The other choices, A: Levine agar, B: Lowenstein-Jensen agar, and C: TCBS agar, do not provide the specific nutrients required for the growth of N. meningitidis. Therefore, only choice D, Chocolate agar, supports the growth of N. meningitidis due to its enriched composition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: orphan drugs. Orphan drugs are medications developed to treat rare diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 patients. These diseases often lack attention from pharmaceutical companies due to the high cost and limited market potential. Orphan drugs receive special incentives and regulatory support to encourage their development. A: Secondary drugs do not specifically refer to medications for rare diseases. B: Minor drugs is not a recognized term in the context of rare disease medications. D: Specialty drugs typically refer to high-cost medications used to treat complex or chronic conditions, but not necessarily rare diseases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transformation. Frederick Griffith discovered bacterial transformation, where genetic material can be transferred between bacteria. He observed this phenomenon while studying pneumonia-causing bacteria in 1928. Transformation is the process by which bacteria take up external DNA and incorporate it into their own genome. This discovery was crucial in understanding how genetic information can be transferred between organisms. Rationale for other choices: A: Translation - This term refers to the process of protein synthesis from mRNA, not relevant to Griffith's discovery. C: Transcription - This term refers to the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA, not related to Griffith's discovery. D: Conjugation - This term refers to the direct transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through cell-to-cell contact, which is different from the phenomenon Griffith observed.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relapsing fever. The description matches Borrelia species, the causative agent of relapsing fever. The thin, spiral-shaped microorganisms with pointed ends and specific length are characteristic of Borrelia. The number of coils and size mentioned also align with Borrelia morphology. Relapsing fever is transmitted by tick bites and manifests as recurring febrile episodes. Incorrect choices: A: Syphilis - Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, which is not spiral-shaped. B: Trypanosomiasis - Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which are not spiral-shaped. C: Leptospirosis - Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira species, which are not spiral-shaped and do not match the specific description provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: endogenous infections. This term refers to infections caused by microorganisms that are normally present in or on the body. In the context of vaginal infections, an overgrowth of the normal flora can lead to an imbalance and result in infection. Choice B, chronic infections, does not specifically address the source of the infection. Choice C, iatrogenic infections, refers to infections caused by medical intervention, not normal flora overgrowth. Choice D, fatal infections, is incorrect as it does not describe the nature or source of the infection. In summary, the term "endogenous infections" accurately describes the scenario of vaginal infections caused by an overgrowth of normal flora.