ATI RN
EMT Vital Signs Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trigger points. Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by localized areas of muscle tightness and tenderness called trigger points. These points can cause referred pain and muscle dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect because the tenderness in myofascial pain syndrome is typically localized, not widespread. Choice B is incorrect as tender points are different from trigger points and are not specific to myofascial pain syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as myofascial pain syndrome is associated with changes in muscle tension due to the presence of trigger points.
Question 2 of 5
After completing an initial assessment of a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58 beats per minute. These types of data would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Objective. Objective data refers to measurable and observable information obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. In this case, the nurse's documentation of the patient's respirations and pulse rate are concrete, quantifiable data that can be verified by another healthcare provider. Eupneic respirations and a pulse rate of 58 beats per minute are specific, factual findings that can be seen or measured. On the other hand, subjective data (choice C) is based on the patient's feelings or statements, which are open to interpretation and cannot be objectively measured. Reflective (choice B) and introspective (choice D) do not apply in this context as they refer to different types of data unrelated to the patient's physical assessment.
Question 3 of 5
The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use and includes which steps?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the sequential steps of the nursing process. Assessment is the first step to gather data, followed by diagnosis to analyze and identify the problem. Outcome identification sets goals, planning creates a care plan, implementation executes the plan, and evaluation assesses the effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because it includes treatment before the diagnosis step, and lacks outcome identification and implementation steps. Choice B is incorrect because it includes admission and discharge planning before the assessment and planning steps. Choice C is incorrect because it includes admission and diagnosis before the assessment step, and lacks outcome identification.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is not an indication for cold therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Arterial insufficiency. Cold therapy is contraindicated in cases of arterial insufficiency because it can further constrict blood vessels, worsening circulation. A: Acute sprains benefit from cold therapy to reduce inflammation. B: Spasticity can be alleviated by cold therapy as it helps to reduce muscle tone. D: Chronic muscle spasm can also be relieved by cold therapy to decrease muscle spasms and pain. Therefore, arterial insufficiency is the only condition where cold therapy should be avoided.
Question 5 of 5
Glaucoma is the leading cause of blindness in African-Americans and the second leading cause of blindness overall. What features would be noted on funduscopic examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased cup-to-disc ratio. On funduscopic examination of a patient with glaucoma, one would typically observe an increased cup-to-disc ratio, indicating optic nerve damage. This is a key feature of glaucoma diagnosis as it signifies progressive loss of retinal ganglion cells. AV nicking, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms are not specific findings in glaucoma, but rather associated with other conditions such as hypertensive retinopathy and diabetic retinopathy. Therefore, they are not indicative of glaucoma on funduscopic examination.