ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Myeloablation using chemotherapeutic agents is useful in cancer treatment because:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Myeloablation refers to the destruction of bone marrow, which is a critical step in preparing a patient for a bone marrow or stem cell transplant. This process eliminates both cancerous and healthy bone marrow cells, creating space for the transplanted cells to engraft and repopulate the marrow. While myeloablation can reduce tumor size, its primary purpose is to prepare the body for transplantation. It is not related to destroying muscle cells or reducing postoperative chemotherapy requirements.
Question 2 of 5
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Butoxamine (β2 antagonist) and terbutaline (β2 agonist) target the same receptor, a true pair. Phenoxybenzamine (α-adrenergic antagonist) and cyclopentolate (muscarinic antagonist) act on different receptors. Pilocarpine and bethanechol are both muscarinic agonists, not antagonist-agonist. Oxymetazoline (α-agonist) and dobutamine (β1-agonist) differ in receptor specificity. Bromocriptine and pramipexole are dopamine agonists. The β2 pair is a classic example in pharmacology, illustrating receptor-specific antagonism and agonism.
Question 4 of 5
Androgen is secreted by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Androgens, mainly testosterone, are secreted by the testes' Leydig cells, activated by pituitary LH, making the testes the source. FSH regulates sperm, not androgens. GnRH from the hypothalamus triggers LH/FSH release, indirectly affecting androgens. The pituitary releases LH/FSH, not androgens. The testes' direct secretion role is fundamental, driven by LH, distinguishing it from regulatory hormones.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is conducting medication education about the difference between potency and efficacy to a group of patients. The nurse correctly determines that learning has occurred when the patients make which response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy (max effect) trumps potency (dose needed) for ‘best'-a high-efficacy drug fully relieves symptoms, unlike high-potency alone. Potency doesn't guarantee outcome. Efficacy doesn't mean fewer side effects-safety varies. Low-potency drugs can be effective but aren't side-effect-free. Greatest efficacy reflects learning, prioritizing treatment success.