ATI RN
Drugs for Peripheral Nervous System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Muscarinic agonist used for atonic bowel or bladder:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Bethanechol. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that is specifically used for atonic bowel or bladder. Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that selectively stimulates postganglionic muscarinic receptors, leading to increased smooth muscle tone and motility in the gastrointestinal tract and bladder. This action helps in treating conditions like urinary retention or atonic bowel where enhanced muscle contractions are needed to improve function. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Clonidine: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist primarily used as an antihypertensive agent and for conditions like ADHD and opioid withdrawal. It does not have a direct effect on muscarinic receptors in the bowel or bladder. B) Chlorpromazine: Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic medication used in conditions like schizophrenia. It does not have a direct effect on bowel or bladder function through muscarinic receptor stimulation. D) Ephedrine: Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic amine that acts mainly by stimulating alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It is used for conditions like hypotension or asthma but does not target muscarinic receptors in the bowel or bladder. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacological actions of different drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make appropriate treatment decisions. In this case, knowing the specific indications and mechanisms of action of muscarinic agonists like bethanechol is essential for managing patients with atonic bowel or bladder issues. This knowledge helps in providing effective and targeted therapies while avoiding potential adverse effects from using the wrong medication.
Question 2 of 5
Isoprenaline produces the following actions EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option D) Increased intestinal motility. Isoprenaline is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that primarily acts on beta adrenoceptors. Therefore, it directly stimulates beta adrenoceptors (option A). Isoprenaline's action leads to relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles (option B) and decreased blood pressure (option C) due to its beta-adrenergic effects. Increased intestinal motility (option D) is not a typical effect of isoprenaline. This answer is correct because isoprenaline primarily affects beta adrenoceptors in the respiratory system and cardiovascular system, leading to bronchodilation and decreased blood pressure, respectively. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological actions of drugs for the peripheral nervous system is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in areas like cardiology, pulmonology, and emergency medicine. Knowing the specific effects of medications like isoprenaline can help in making informed decisions regarding patient care and treatment options.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following is a cardio selective $ß1$-blocker:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of drugs for the peripheral nervous system, understanding the selectivity of beta-blockers is crucial for clinical practice. Metoprolol, option B, is the correct answer as it is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker. The rationale behind this is that metoprolol primarily targets beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate and contractility without significantly affecting beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Option A, Timolol, is a non-selective beta-blocker affecting both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, leading to potential bronchoconstriction in patients with respiratory issues. Option C, Nadolol, is also a non-selective beta-blocker, impacting both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors and potentially causing similar pulmonary issues. Option D, Sotalol, is not a beta-blocker but rather a non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist with Class III antiarrhythmic properties, primarily used for treating atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, making it an incorrect choice for a cardioselective beta-1 blocker. Educationally, knowing the selectivity of beta-blockers is vital for prescribing appropriate medications for patients with specific conditions. Understanding the variations in selectivity can help prevent adverse effects and optimize treatment outcomes, showcasing the importance of pharmacological knowledge in clinical decision-making.
Question 4 of 5
Giving a single IV injection of phenylephrine can be used to normalize a rapid heart rate in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). How does phenylephrine do this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of administering phenylephrine to normalize a rapid heart rate in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), the correct answer is C) It raises blood pressure, slowing the heart via the baroreceptor reflex. Phenylephrine is a sympathomimetic agent that acts predominantly on alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and subsequently raising blood pressure. By increasing blood pressure, phenylephrine activates the baroreceptor reflex, which leads to a vagal response resulting in a decrease in heart rate. This mechanism helps to counteract the rapid heart rate seen in PSVT. Option A (It blocks the beta-receptors on the heart) is incorrect because phenylephrine primarily acts on alpha receptors, not beta receptors. Option B (It stimulates norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerves to the heart) is incorrect as phenylephrine itself is a sympathomimetic agent and does not stimulate norepinephrine release. Option D (It stimulates ACh esterase at parasympathetic nerves to the heart) is also incorrect because phenylephrine does not directly affect parasympathetic nerves. Understanding the pharmacological actions of drugs used in cardiovascular conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care. By grasping how phenylephrine functions in the context of PSVT, healthcare providers can effectively manage patients with this condition and optimize treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Injecting cocaine may cause a hypertensive crisis or stroke and if the cocaine is inhaled frequently it may destroy the tissues in the nose. Which of the following best describes how cocaine causes these adverse effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Blocks reuptake of noradrenaline released from adrenergic nerves. Cocaine causes adverse effects like hypertensive crisis or stroke because it blocks the reuptake of noradrenaline (norepinephrine) released from adrenergic nerves. This leads to an accumulation of noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, resulting in prolonged stimulation of adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. Option A) Blocks alpha adrenergic receptors is incorrect because cocaine does not directly block these receptors. Option B) Blocks muscarinic receptors for ACh is incorrect as cocaine primarily affects adrenergic neurotransmission, not cholinergic pathways. Option D) Depletes norepinephrine from adrenergic nerve endings is also incorrect as cocaine's mechanism involves blocking reuptake, not depleting norepinephrine stores. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological actions of drugs like cocaine is crucial for healthcare professionals to recognize and manage adverse effects. This knowledge helps in providing safe and effective care to individuals who may present with drug-related complications. Educating on the mechanisms of action of drugs can also aid in prevention strategies and harm reduction efforts.