ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. T. comes for her regular visit to the clinic. She is on your schedule because her regular provider is on vacation and she wanted to be seen. You have heard about her many times from your colleague and are aware that she is a very talkative person. Which of the following is a helpful technique to improve the quality of the interview for both the provider and the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, briefy summarizing what you heard from the patient in the first 5 minutes and then trying to have her focus on one aspect of what she told you, is the best technique to facilitate a more focused and efficient interview. This approach acknowledges the patient's need to talk while also guiding the conversation towards more relevant topics. By summarizing at the beginning, you demonstrate that you are listening, and by redirecting the conversation to specific points, you can ensure that important issues are addressed within the time constraints of the appointment. It can help streamline the visit and prevent it from meandering off track due to the patient's chattiness.
Question 2 of 9
On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A right homonymous hemianopsia refers to a visual field defect in which the patient is unable to see objects in the right half of the visual field in both eyes. In the case described, the stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered, which is consistent with a right homonymous hemianopsia. This type of visual field defect typically occurs as a result of damage to the optic tract or optic radiation on one side of the brain, which affects the processing of visual information from the opposite visual field. It is important to note that bitemporal hemianopsia, right temporal hemianopsia, and binasal hemianopsia involve different patterns of visual field loss and are not fitting descriptions for the presented scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Maxwell has noticed that he is gaining weight and has increasing girth. Which of the following would argue for the presence of ascites?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ascites is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. When ascites is present, dullness is typically heard on percussion due to the fluid in the abdomen. This dullness does not shift with changes in the patient's position. Therefore, the finding of dullness which remains despite a change in position would argue for the presence of ascites. The other choices (A, C, D) describe findings that are more consistent with gaseous distention rather than ascites.
Question 4 of 9
Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the mentioned techniques are important in performing a rectal examination.
Question 5 of 9
You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the vascular surgery clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic arterial insufficiency results in poor blood flow to the lower extremities. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the tissues, causing damage and changes in the skin. A common physical examination finding in chronic arterial insufficiency is thin, shiny, atrophic skin. The skin may appear pale, cool to the touch, and may have decreased hair growth. It is important to note that other findings such as diminished or absent pulses and reduced temperatures may also be present with chronic arterial insufficiency.
Question 6 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.
Question 7 of 9
Ms. Whiting is a 68-year-old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn't mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of new flat red and purple lesions that are tender on the ulnar aspect of Ms. Whiting's forearms raises concerns and warrants further investigation. Since she did not mention them, it is important to ask how she acquired them to gather more information. This will help determine the cause of the lesions and provide clues to potential underlying conditions or recent activities that could be related to their development. It is important not to dismiss these lesions as old without proper evaluation, as they could indicate a recent injury, infection, or other medical issues that may require attention.
Question 8 of 9
Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with Candida vaginitis, also known as vaginal yeast infection. Candida vaginitis typically presents with a thick, white, curdy discharge that can be visualized on examination. The low pH of 1 is characteristic of Candida infection. The negative KOH whiff test and absence of an unusual smell help differentiate Candida vaginitis from other types of vaginitis.
Question 9 of 9
A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain "all over." With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints; she states that the pain is worse in the morning; there is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation; muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which of the following is likely the cause of her pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points on palpation, especially in the neck, shoulders, back, and hips. The patient's symptoms of widespread pain and tenderness at specific points on the muscles without arthritis, joint swelling, or limitation in range of motion are consistent with fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is often associated with poor sleep quality, morning stiffness, and fatigue, which the patient in the case provided experiences. Other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, or polymyalgia rheumatica would typically present differently with specific joint involvement, swelling, and additional systemic symptoms, which are not seen in this patient.