ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. T. comes for her regular visit to the clinic. She is on your schedule because her regular provider is on vacation and she wanted to be seen. You have heard about her many times from your colleague and are aware that she is a very talkative person. Which of the following is a helpful technique to improve the quality of the interview for both the provider and the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, briefy summarizing what you heard from the patient in the first 5 minutes and then trying to have her focus on one aspect of what she told you, is the best technique to facilitate a more focused and efficient interview. This approach acknowledges the patient's need to talk while also guiding the conversation towards more relevant topics. By summarizing at the beginning, you demonstrate that you are listening, and by redirecting the conversation to specific points, you can ensure that important issues are addressed within the time constraints of the appointment. It can help streamline the visit and prevent it from meandering off track due to the patient's chattiness.
Question 2 of 9
He works in a sales office to support his family. Recently he has injured his back and you are thinking he would benefit from physical therapy, three times a week, for an hour per session. What would be your next step?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The next step would be to discuss the physical therapy plan with Mr. Larson. It is important to communicate openly with him, explain the recommendation for physical therapy, and ensure that he understands and agrees with the plan before proceeding further. This allows for any questions or concerns to be addressed, and ensures that the treatment plan is tailored to his needs and preferences. By discussing the plan with Mr. Larson first, you can also provide him with the opportunity to ask any questions and actively involve him in his own care, which can lead to better compliance and outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The statement that a high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination is true. Studies have shown that only a small percentage of breast cancers are actually detected by women themselves through self-examination. In fact, most breast cancers are detected through clinical breast exams and mammograms. Therefore, while it is still important for women to be breast aware and report any changes they notice to their healthcare provider, the practice of routine breast self-examinations is no longer universally recommended. Instead, the focus has shifted towards regular clinical breast exams and mammograms based on individual risk factors.
Question 4 of 9
Her blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable except for edema of the nasal turbinates. On auscultation she has decreased air movement, and coarse crackles are heard over the left lower lobe. There is dullness on percussion, increased fremitus during palpation, and egophony and whispered pectoriloquy on auscultation. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms point towards pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by infection and inflammation in the lung tissue, leading to symptoms such as decreased air movement, crackles on auscultation, dullness on percussion, increased fremitus on palpation, and abnormal breath sounds like egophony and whispered pectoriloquy. These findings are consistent with consolidation of the lung, which occurs in pneumonia as a result of fluid, inflammatory cells, and tissue debris filling the alveoli. The presence of nasal turbinates edema indicates a possible upper respiratory tract infection that may have preceded the development of pneumonia. Spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea but would not typically cause findings of lung consolidation. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma are characterized by different patterns of lung damage and symptoms, such as chronic inflammation, airflow obstruction, and hyper
Question 5 of 9
A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain "all over." With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints; she states that the pain is worse in the morning; there is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation; muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which of the following is likely the cause of her pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points on palpation, especially in the neck, shoulders, back, and hips. The patient's symptoms of widespread pain and tenderness at specific points on the muscles without arthritis, joint swelling, or limitation in range of motion are consistent with fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is often associated with poor sleep quality, morning stiffness, and fatigue, which the patient in the case provided experiences. Other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, or polymyalgia rheumatica would typically present differently with specific joint involvement, swelling, and additional systemic symptoms, which are not seen in this patient.
Question 6 of 9
A daycare worker presents to your office with jaundice. She denies IV drug use, blood transfusion, and travel and has not been sexually active for the past 10 months. Which type of hepatitis is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Among the options presented, Hepatitis B (HBV) is most likely in this scenario. HBV can be transmitted through mucous membrane exposure to infectious blood or body fluids, including sexual contact. The daycare worker's history of not being sexually active for the past 10 months would not completely rule out the possibility of acquiring HBV through a past sexual encounter. Also, HBV can persist in the blood for prolonged periods, making it a likely cause of jaundice in this case. The other types of hepatitis (A, C, D) are less likely based on the information provided concerning the daycare worker's history and risk factors.
Question 7 of 9
Mrs. T. comes for her regular visit to the clinic. She is on your schedule because her regular provider is on vacation and she wanted to be seen. You have heard about her many times from your colleague and are aware that she is a very talkative person. Which of the following is a helpful technique to improve the quality of the interview for both the provider and the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, briefy summarizing what you heard from the patient in the first 5 minutes and then trying to have her focus on one aspect of what she told you, is the best technique to facilitate a more focused and efficient interview. This approach acknowledges the patient's need to talk while also guiding the conversation towards more relevant topics. By summarizing at the beginning, you demonstrate that you are listening, and by redirecting the conversation to specific points, you can ensure that important issues are addressed within the time constraints of the appointment. It can help streamline the visit and prevent it from meandering off track due to the patient's chattiness.
Question 8 of 9
On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A right homonymous hemianopsia refers to a visual field defect in which the patient is unable to see objects in the right half of the visual field in both eyes. In the case described, the stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered, which is consistent with a right homonymous hemianopsia. This type of visual field defect typically occurs as a result of damage to the optic tract or optic radiation on one side of the brain, which affects the processing of visual information from the opposite visual field. It is important to note that bitemporal hemianopsia, right temporal hemianopsia, and binasal hemianopsia involve different patterns of visual field loss and are not fitting descriptions for the presented scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with Candida vaginitis, also known as vaginal yeast infection. Candida vaginitis typically presents with a thick, white, curdy discharge that can be visualized on examination. The low pH of 1 is characteristic of Candida infection. The negative KOH whiff test and absence of an unusual smell help differentiate Candida vaginitis from other types of vaginitis.