ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a woman over the age of 40 presents with a breast mass, the risk of the mass being cancerous is around 40%. This risk is higher in older women compared to younger women. It is important for Mrs. Patton to undergo further evaluation, which may include imaging tests, a biopsy, and consultation with a specialist to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. It is crucial to address breast masses promptly to ensure timely management and optimal outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The policewoman's presentation of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin, associated with nausea, blood in urine, and tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle is highly suggestive of a kidney stone causing ureteral colic. Kidney stones are solid masses made of crystals that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe pain as they move through the urinary tract, leading to blockage and subsequent stretching of the ureter (the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder), resulting in pain that radiates from the flank down to the groin region. The presence of blood in the urine (hematuria) is a common finding with kidney stones due to irritation and damage to the ureteral lining as the stone passes. The negative urine pregnancy test rules out pregnancy-related causes of urinary symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain is less likely given the location and character of the pain
Question 3 of 5
Glaucoma is the leading cause of blindness in African Americans and the second leading cause of blindness overall. What features would be noted on funduscopic examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glaucoma is a progressive optic neuropathy characterized by changes to the optic nerve head. One of the hallmark features seen on funduscopic examination in glaucoma is an increased cup-to-disc ratio. This refers to the ratio of the size of the optic cup (depression in the center of the optic nerve head) to the size of the optic disc (the pinkish-orange area around the cup). In glaucoma, there is typically an enlargement of the cup relative to the disc due to damage of the retinal ganglion cell axons. This change is often associated with thinning of the neuroretinal rim and loss of nerve fibers.
Question 4 of 5
A 58-year-old man comes to your office complaining of bilateral back pain that now awakens him at night. This has been steadily increasing for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most reassuring in this patient with back pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this patient with bilateral back pain that awakens him at night, the most reassuring finding is that the pain is bilateral. Bilateral symptoms are less likely to be associated with red flags such as malignancy or infection compared to unilateral symptoms. While back pain in individuals over the age of 50, pain at night, and pain lasting more than 1 month are concerning features, the fact that the pain in this patient is bilateral provides some reassurance. However, further evaluation is still warranted to determine the exact cause of the pain and appropriate management.
Question 5 of 5
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well, and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process in this scenario is degenerative. The history provided includes chronic intermittent neck pain that worsened after a specific activity (wallpapering) but resolved with rest. The patient's age (47 years old) is also suggestive of degenerative changes in the spine. Additionally, the use of over-the-counter medications to manage the pain points towards a chronic condition such as degenerative changes in the cervical spine, possibly cervical spondylosis or osteoarthritis. There is no mention of any infectious symptoms, trauma, or neoplastic features in the presentation.