ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a woman over the age of 40 presents with a breast mass, the risk of the mass being cancerous is around 40%. This risk is higher in older women compared to younger women. It is important for Mrs. Patton to undergo further evaluation, which may include imaging tests, a biopsy, and consultation with a specialist to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. It is crucial to address breast masses promptly to ensure timely management and optimal outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, it is important to examine the pulses in the upper extremities. The pulses to be assessed in this context include the radial pulse (located on the wrist at the base of the thumb) and the brachial pulse (located in the upper arm near the elbow). These pulses provide important information about blood flow and circulation in the arms. Changes in the strength, regularity, or absence of these pulses can indicate potential issues related to peripheral vascular disease. While the femoral and popliteal pulses (Choice A) are important for assessing the lower extremities, and the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses (Choice B) are also crucial for evaluating peripheral vascular disease in the legs, the radial and brachial pulses are specifically relevant for assessing the arms. The carotid pulse (Choice C) is important for evaluating the vascular status of
Question 3 of 9
A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The policewoman's presentation of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin, associated with nausea, blood in urine, and tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle is highly suggestive of a kidney stone causing ureteral colic. Kidney stones are solid masses made of crystals that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe pain as they move through the urinary tract, leading to blockage and subsequent stretching of the ureter (the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder), resulting in pain that radiates from the flank down to the groin region. The presence of blood in the urine (hematuria) is a common finding with kidney stones due to irritation and damage to the ureteral lining as the stone passes. The negative urine pregnancy test rules out pregnancy-related causes of urinary symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain is less likely given the location and character of the pain
Question 4 of 9
Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Option D, "Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition," is true. Vaginismus is a condition characterized by involuntary contractions of the muscles around the vaginal entrance, which can make sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. In many cases, this condition is linked with psychological factors such as anxiety, fear, past trauma, or relationship issues. These psychological factors can lead to the muscles tightening up in anticipation of pain or discomfort during intercourse, hence causing vaginismus. With appropriate psychological interventions like counseling, therapy, or relaxation techniques, individuals experiencing vaginismus can often overcome the condition and engage in pain-free intercourse.
Question 5 of 9
Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of her anus, no inflammation, masses, or fissures are noted. When she is asked to bear down, you see a rosette of red mucosa prolapsing from the anus. On digital rectal examination there are no masses and no blood is found on the glove. What disorder of the anus or rectum is this likely to be?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The findings described in the scenario point towards rectal prolapse. Rectal prolapse, also known as procidentia or rectal procidentia, is the full-thickness protrusion of the rectal wall through the anus. The characteristic presentation often includes the protrusion of a rosette of red mucosa from the anus when the patient bears down. This is consistent with the visual assessment mentioned in the scenario.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following regarding jugular venous pulsations is a systolic phenomenon?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The upstroke of the "a" wave in the jugular venous pulsations coincides with systole. The "a" wave is caused by atrial contraction, which occurs during ventricular systole. In contrast, the "x" descent is a diastolic phenomenon representing the atrial relaxation, the "y" descent follows atrial emptying in early diastole, and the "v" wave corresponds to venous filling during late diastole.
Question 7 of 9
You are beginning the examination of a patient. All of the following areas are important to observe as part of the General Survey except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Blood pressure is not typically included in the initial assessment during the General Survey. The General Survey primarily focuses on obtaining an overall impression of the patient's health status and any noticeable cues such as level of consciousness, signs of distress, and appearance including dress, grooming, and personal hygiene. While blood pressure is an important vital sign to assess during a comprehensive examination, it is usually measured later in the assessment process and not part of the initial general observation.
Question 8 of 9
You are assessing a patient with diffuse joint pains and want to make sure that only the joints are the problem, and that the pain is not related to other diseases. Which of the following is a systemic cause of joint pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lupus is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues throughout the body, including the joints. Joint pain in lupus is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as fatigue, fever, skin rashes, and organ involvement. It is important to consider lupus as a potential cause of joint pain in a patient with diffuse joint symptoms to ensure proper management and treatment. Gout, osteoarthritis, and spondylosis are more localized conditions that primarily affect the joints without the systemic involvement typically seen in lupus.
Question 9 of 9
Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description provided by Alexandra includes information about the location (right upper quadrant), intensity (3 to 8 on a scale), duration (2 to 3 hours), periodicity (coming and going, worse after eating), exacerbating factors (greasy foods), frequency (initially once a week, now every other day), and aggravating factors (nothing makes it better). However, there is no mention of any associated manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, fever, or other symptoms that may be occurring alongside the abdominal pain. Associated manifestations are important for a comprehensive assessment and differential diagnosis of the symptom.