Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects

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Question 1 of 5

Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Mrs. Maroldo's presentation with left lower quadrant pain, fever, elevated heart rate, history of previous episodes of similar pain that improved with antibiotics, and recent diarrhea are all concerning for diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is an infection or inflammation of small pouches that can form in the wall of the colon, known as diverticula. The symptoms typically include localized abdominal pain, fever, elevated heart rate, and changes in bowel habits such as diarrhea or constipation. The discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant indicates inflammation in that area. The presence of fever, elevated heart rate, and low blood pressure suggests an infectious process requiring urgent evaluation and treatment. Further diagnostic tests such as a CT scan may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis and assess the extent of the inflammation. Appendicitis can also present with abdominal pain, but the location of the pain in the left lower quadrant makes diverticul

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Type A aortic aneurysms require immediate surgical intervention. Type A aortic dissections involve the ascending aorta and are at high risk for complications such as aortic rupture or compromise of coronary artery blood flow. Prompt surgical repair is necessary to prevent potentially fatal outcomes. Types B, C, and symptomatic aneurysms may not require immediate surgical intervention depending on the specific patient presentation and associated risks.

Question 3 of 5

The AGACNP recognizes that which of the following diagnostic studies is essential in all cases of acute abdomen?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ultrasonography is considered essential in all cases of acute abdomen because it is a valuable tool in evaluating various abdominal organs non-invasively. It can quickly identify common causes of acute abdomen such as cholecystitis, pancreatitis, appendicitis, and other intra-abdominal pathologies. Ultrasonography also has the advantage of being radiation-free and can be performed rapidly at the bedside, making it a preferred initial diagnostic modality in the evaluation of acute abdominal pain. Abdominal radiograph, contrast radiography, and chest radiography may have limited utility in the evaluation of acute abdomen compared to ultrasonography.

Question 4 of 5

While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A crescent-shaped fluid collection on a head CT scan typically represents an acute subdural hematoma. Acute subdural hematomas result from the tearing of bridging veins that lie between the dura mater and arachnoid mater layers of the meninges. This injury often occurs due to significant head trauma, such as a motor vehicle accident. As blood accumulates within the potential space between the dura and arachnoid layers, it forms a crescent-shaped collection that can compress the underlying brain tissue, leading to symptoms such as altered mental status, headache, focal neurological deficits, and signs of increased intracranial pressure. Treatment may involve surgical intervention to evacuate the hematoma and relieve the pressure on the brain.

Question 5 of 5

Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Upper urinary imaging is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie based on the presentation of microscopic hematuria with no other identifiable explanation. Upper urinary imaging, such as an ultrasound or CT scan, can help evaluate the upper urinary tract, including the kidneys and ureters, to investigate potential causes of hematuria. This step is commonly recommended before proceeding to invasive procedures like cystoscopy or consultation with a urologist. It allows for a non-invasive assessment of the upper urinary system to identify any potential abnormalities that may be causing the hematuria in the patient.

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