Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this point in pregnancy, the fetus has reached a stable lie position. Before 36 weeks, fetal lie can vary due to the ample space in the uterus. After 36 weeks, the fetus tends to settle into a consistent head-down or breech position, making the lie stable. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where the lie typically stabilizes, leading to less variability in fetal positioning.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and symptoms like severe headaches. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign, proteinuria indicates kidney damage, and severe headaches can be a symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Therefore, all three signs are crucial for diagnosing preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key signs necessary for diagnosing preeclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.