ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale. She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds. How would you best explain this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely explanation for Mrs. Lenzo noticing a 4-pound weight gain over just 2 days is fluctuations in body fluid. Our body weight can fluctuate throughout the day due to factors such as hydration levels, sodium intake, and hormonal changes. It is not physically possible to gain 4 pounds of actual body mass (e.g., fat or muscle) in such a short period of time by overeating or wearing different clothing. Additionally, if Mrs. Lenzo's scale is very accurate as mentioned, it is less likely that the weight gain is due to instrument inaccuracy. Therefore, the most plausible reason for the sudden weight gain is fluctuations in body fluid retention.
Question 2 of 9
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.
Question 3 of 9
What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inspiratory splitting of S occurs due to the normal physiological delay in the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during inspiration. During inspiration, the negative intrathoracic pressure leads to increased venous return to the right side of the heart, causing a slight delay in the closure of the pulmonic valve. This results in the aortic valve closing first, followed by the closure of the pulmonic valve, leading to the splitting of S during inspiration.
Question 4 of 9
In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following is important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to keep the patient's torso at a 45-degree angle when measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP). This position allows the internal jugular vein to partially collapse, ensuring accurate observation of the pulsations. Keeping the patient at a 45-degree angle provides a standardized position for JVP measurement and helps avoid errors in assessment.
Question 5 of 9
A 26-year-old violinist comes to your clinic, complaining of anxiety. He is a first chair violinist in the local symphony orchestra and has started having symptoms during performances, such as sweating, shaking, and hyperventilating. It has gotten so bad that he has thought about giving up his first chair status so he does not have to play the solo during one of the movements. He says that he never has these symptoms during rehearsals or when he is practicing. He denies having any of these symptoms at any other time. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco use, drug use, or alcohol abuse. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a young man who appears worried. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. What type of anxiety disorder best describes his situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The young violinist is experiencing symptoms of anxiety specifically related to performing in front of others, which is characteristic of social phobia (also known as social anxiety disorder). The symptoms occur only during performances, indicating the anxiety is triggered by social situations where he is the center of attention. His ability to perform without symptoms during rehearsals or practice sessions further supports the diagnosis of social phobia, as the anxiety is specifically related to public performance. In contrast, panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks that are not situation-specific, and specific phobia involves an intense fear of a specific object or situation, neither of which fully match this patient's presentation. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry and anxiety about various aspects of life, which is not the main feature of this case.
Question 6 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.
Question 7 of 9
A 67-year-old lawyer comes to your clinic for an annual examination. He denies any history of eye trauma. He denies any visual changes. You inspect his eyes and find a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea. He has a normal pupillary reaction to light and accommodation. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The described findings of a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea are characteristic of a pterygium. A pterygium is a benign growth of conjunctival tissue that extends onto the cornea. It is often associated with chronic exposure to ultraviolet light and typically occurs on the nasal side of the eye. Pterygiums are usually asymptomatic but can cause irritation, redness, and foreign body sensation in some cases. Surgical removal may be considered if the pterygium causes significant symptoms or affects vision.
Question 8 of 9
He works in a sales office to support his family. Recently he has injured his back and you are thinking he would benefit from physical therapy, three times a week, for an hour per session. What would be your next step?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The next step would be to discuss the physical therapy plan with Mr. Larson. It is important to communicate openly with him, explain the recommendation for physical therapy, and ensure that he understands and agrees with the plan before proceeding further. This allows for any questions or concerns to be addressed, and ensures that the treatment plan is tailored to his needs and preferences. By discussing the plan with Mr. Larson first, you can also provide him with the opportunity to ask any questions and actively involve him in his own care, which can lead to better compliance and outcomes.
Question 9 of 9
Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with Candida vaginitis, also known as vaginal yeast infection. Candida vaginitis typically presents with a thick, white, curdy discharge that can be visualized on examination. The low pH of 1 is characteristic of Candida infection. The negative KOH whiff test and absence of an unusual smell help differentiate Candida vaginitis from other types of vaginitis.