Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma can lead to increased amniotic fluid accumulation, causing polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities can affect fetal swallowing and urine production, leading to fluid buildup. Chorioangioma is a vascular tumor in the placenta that can disrupt normal fluid dynamics. Choice B is incorrect as severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy are more likely to cause oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios. Choice C is incorrect as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anemia are associated with macrosomia and not polyhydramnios. Choice D is incorrect because Rhesus D isoimmunisation and postdatism are not typically linked to polyhydramnios.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because secondary post-partum hemorrhage can occur up to 6 weeks (46 days) after delivery, typically due to delayed complications like retained placental fragments or infection. Choice A is incorrect because most secondary post-partum hemorrhage occurs after the first week. Choice B is incorrect as it describes primary post-partum hemorrhage, which occurs within 24 hours of delivery. Choice D is incorrect since lochia serosa is a normal discharge present in the early post-partum period and is not specific to diagnosing secondary post-partum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Gestational diabetes mellitus. This condition is diagnosed when a pregnant woman exhibits symptoms of diabetes and has elevated fasting blood sugar and abnormal oral glucose tolerance test results. This specific combination of symptoms and test results during pregnancy points towards gestational diabetes mellitus. A: Potential diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. The symptoms combined with abnormal test results suggest an active condition, not potential. C: Clinical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. While the symptoms and test results indicate diabetes, the context of pregnancy suggests gestational diabetes. D: Chemical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. This term is not commonly used in medical practice and does not specifically address the condition in the given scenario.