Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric retention. Mrs. Coates' symptoms of persistent and progressive discomfort are not likely due to gastric retention because she underwent a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer, which would bypass the stomach. Therefore, gastric retention is not a possible cause. A: Colic due to return of peristalsis is a possible cause as peristalsis returning after surgery can cause discomfort. B: Leakage from the duodenal stump is a possible cause as it can lead to abdominal discomfort postoperatively. D: Hemorrhage is a possible cause given her history of bleeding ulcer and surgery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the fetus is in a position where the face is presenting first, allowing for delivery. In this presentation, the chin is usually tucked onto the chest, making it easier for the baby's head to pass through the birth canal. A: Brow presentation is incorrect because it indicates the baby's head is extended slightly, making it more difficult for vaginal delivery. C: Shoulder presentation is incorrect as it can lead to a shoulder dystocia, making vaginal delivery dangerous and difficult. D: Unstable lie is incorrect because it refers to the baby being in a transverse position, making vaginal delivery impossible without intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe asphyxia and prematurity. In eclampsia, maternal hypertension can lead to placental insufficiency, reducing oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, resulting in severe asphyxia and premature birth. This is due to the high risk of placental abruption and intrauterine growth restriction. Other choices are incorrect because cerebral hemorrhage and pneumonia (choice A) are not commonly associated with neonatal complications of eclampsia. Fractures and soft tissue trauma (choice C) are not typical complications of eclampsia in neonates. Respiratory distress and hypoglycemia (choice D) are more commonly seen in neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes, not eclampsia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fetal macrosomia. Fetal macrosomia, which refers to a baby being significantly larger than average, is an inorganic risk factor for birth injuries because it can lead to difficult delivery and increase the risk of birth trauma such as shoulder dystocia. Maternal short stature (A) is a biological risk factor, not inorganic. Prenatal oligohydramnios (B) refers to low levels of amniotic fluid and is a maternal condition, not an inorganic factor. External cephalic version (C) is a procedure to turn a breech baby and is not a risk factor for birth injuries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.