Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. INH (Isoniazid) can lead to peripheral neuropathy due to vitamin B6 deficiency. 2. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6, which helps prevent neuropathy. 3. Supplementing with pyridoxine can counteract the deficiency caused by INH. 4. Thus, option C, supplementing the diet with pyridoxine, is the correct choice. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as a low cholesterol diet does not address the vitamin B6 deficiency. - Option B is incorrect as excessive bed rest does not prevent neuropathy. - Option D is incorrect as sun exposure is not related to the prevention of peripheral neuropathy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. Fractures are the primary complication of osteoporosis due to decreased bone density. Increased trabeculae (A) is incorrect as osteoporosis leads to decreased bone density, not increased. Poor posture (B) may be a result of osteoporosis but is not its primary complication. Chronic pain (C) can occur with osteoporosis but is not as directly linked as fractures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: administer morphine sulfate as ordered. This is the appropriate nursing intervention because acute abdominal pain is a common symptom of acute pancreatitis, and morphine sulfate is a commonly used medication to relieve severe abdominal pain. Administering morphine sulfate will help alleviate Aling Loida's discomfort and improve her overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect because obtaining daily weights is not directly related to managing acute abdominal pain in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining Aling Loida on a high calorie, high protein diet may exacerbate her symptoms due to the acute pancreatitis. Choice D is incorrect as placing her on a supine position may not address the underlying cause of the abdominal pain and could potentially worsen her condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe. This is important because mixing insulin requires drawing up the clear (short-acting) insulin first to prevent contamination. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents clouding of the insulin. Drawing up cloudy insulin first can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential mixing errors. Administering insulin after the first meal (choice A) is not the focus of this question. Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle (choice B) is not recommended for insulin injections. Vigorously shaking the vial of insulin before withdrawal (choice C) can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.