ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following data regarding a client with a diagnosis of colon cancer are subjective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because subjective data refers to information reported by the client, such as their symptoms or feelings. In this case, the client experiencing nausea and loss of appetite due to chemotherapy is subjective as it is based on the client's personal experience and perception. Choice B is incorrect because the client becoming teary is an observable behavior, making it an objective data point. Choice C is incorrect as the amount of effluent from the ileostomy is a measurable and quantifiable data, making it objective. Choice D is also incorrect as the patient's unwillingness to manipulate or empty his ostomy bag is an observable behavior, not based on the client's report.
Question 3 of 5
A client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgery. Surgery is the primary treatment for vaginal cancer, especially for early-stage cases. It involves removing the cancerous tissue from the vagina. Radiation (B) and chemotherapy (C) may also be used in addition to surgery in some cases, but they are not the primary treatment. Immunotherapy (D) is not a standard treatment for vaginal cancer. It is important to prioritize surgery as it directly targets and removes the cancerous cells from the affected area, increasing the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage present, then will progress to more specific assessments based on the findings. This approach allows for a systematic and comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition by moving from general observations to detailed examinations. Explanation: 1. General assessment: The nurse is initially assessing the overall appearance of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage. 2. Specific assessment: Based on the initial findings, the nurse will proceed to conduct more focused assessments, such as checking for signs of infection, monitoring vital signs, and assessing the surgical site for any complications. Other choices are incorrect: A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns - This framework focuses on assessing different aspects of an individual's health patterns, such as activity level, sleep patterns, and coping mechanisms. It is not the most appropriate approach in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment - This type of assessment focuses
Question 5 of 5
The physician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.
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