Mrs. Miller has a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. To prevent renal damage her plan of care should include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Acute pyelonephritis requires antibiotic therapy to eliminate the infection and prevent renal damage. 2. Continuing drug therapy indefinitely ensures complete eradication of the infection. 3. Stopping drug therapy prematurely can lead to recurrence and potential renal complications. 4. Understanding the necessity of drug therapy is crucial for Mrs. Miller's long-term renal health. Summary: A: Incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can worsen the infection and hinder recovery. B: Incorrect. Protein intake is not directly related to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis. D: Incorrect. Preventing viral infections is not directly relevant to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is 1 week after her menstrual period ends. This is because breast tissue tends to be less tender and lumpy during this time, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Performing the examination at this time allows for a more accurate assessment of the breasts. Additionally, hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can affect breast tissue, so performing the examination post-menstruation reduces the likelihood of false alarms. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal times as breast tenderness and hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual period can make it challenging to accurately detect abnormalities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: renal failure. Renal failure refers to the kidneys' inability to adequately excrete waste products and maintain electrolyte balance, leading to disruption of homeostasis. Glomerulonephritis (A) is inflammation of the glomeruli, not necessarily resulting in inadequate excretion. Polycystic kidney disease (B) is a genetic disorder causing cysts in the kidneys, but it doesn't directly relate to excretory function. Choice C is incomplete.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wrinkled appearance of scrotum. The dartos muscle is a smooth muscle in the scrotum that contracts and causes the wrinkled appearance of the scrotum. This contraction helps regulate the temperature of the testes by moving them closer to or further away from the body for optimal sperm production. Choice A is incorrect because temperature regulation is primarily controlled by the cremaster muscle. Choice B is incorrect as hernia is not a function of the dartos muscle. Choice C is an incomplete choice and does not relate to the function of the dartos muscle.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bladder retraining aims to improve urinary control and prevent incontinence in older adults. Implementing a timed voiding schedule helps the patient regain control over their bladder function and reduces the risk of urinary issues. Option B is incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia is not typically associated with bladder retraining. Option C is incorrect as it describes a normal bladder residual volume, which does not directly relate to bladder retraining. Option D is incomplete.