Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?

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Question 1 of 9

Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.

Question 2 of 9

A client is brought to the emergency department in an unconscious condition. The client’s wife hands over the previous medical files and points out that the client had suddenly fallen unconscious after trying to get out of bed. Which of the following is a primary source of information?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client’s wife. She is the primary source of information as she witnessed the event firsthand and provided relevant details. In this scenario, the wife's account of the event is crucial in understanding the sequence of events leading to the client's unconscious condition. Medical documents (B), test results (C), and assessment data (D) are all secondary sources of information that may provide additional data but do not have the same level of immediacy or firsthand knowledge as the client's wife. In an emergency situation, information from a reliable eyewitness is often the most valuable initial source for healthcare providers to make critical decisions.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balance. Loss of ability in balance can indicate neurological, musculoskeletal, or sensory issues affecting mobility. Speech (B) is related to communication, judgment (C) to decision-making, and endurance (D) to stamina, not specifically to loss of ability. Balance is crucial for mobility and overall function, making it a priority area for assessment in healthcare settings.

Question 4 of 9

A client hyperparathyroidism declines surgery and is to receive hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone. Which of the following instructions would be most important to include in the client’s teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: maintain a moderate exercise. Exercise helps in maintaining bone density, which is crucial in managing hyperparathyroidism. Moderate exercise can also help in weight management and overall health. Choice B, losing weight, can be helpful but not as crucial as exercise. Choice C, jogging 2 miles per day, may be excessive for some individuals and not necessary for managing hyperparathyroidism. Choice D, resting as much as possible, is not recommended as it can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, which are already concerns in hyperparathyroidism.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the ff would describe the discomfort experienced by a client with a tension headache?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because tension headaches typically present as a feeling of pressure or steady constriction on both sides of the head. This is due to muscle tension in the head and neck. Choice A is incorrect as sensitivity to light is more characteristic of migraines. Choice C is incorrect as unilateral paralysis is not typically associated with tension headaches. Choice D is incorrect as vague headache especially peri orbital is not a common symptom of tension headaches. Therefore, the best description of discomfort experienced by a client with a tension headache is the pressure or steady constriction on both sides of the head.

Question 6 of 9

Mrs. Santos, a 75-year old patient with type II diabetes is in emergency department with signs of hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar nonketotic (HHNK) coma. What assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: severe dehydration. In HHNK coma, the body tries to eliminate excess glucose through frequent urination, leading to dehydration. This results in decreased blood volume, causing hypotension and tachycardia. Signs include dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and concentrated urine output. Fruity odor of the breath (A) is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNK coma. Shallow, deep respirations (B) and profuse sweating (D) are not typically associated with HHNK coma.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which refers to paleness of the skin, is an early sign of anemia due to decreased red blood cell levels. Anemia causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues, leading to paleness. Palpitations (A) may occur in anemia but are not an early sign. Glossitis (C) and weight loss (D) are not typically early signs of anemia and are more commonly associated with other health conditions.

Question 8 of 9

How many drops per minute should be delivered?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate

Question 9 of 9

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.

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