ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following pairs of ischemic symptoms versus vascular supply is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ischemic symptoms in the upper calf are indicative of peripheral artery disease affecting the tibial or peroneal arteries. These arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot region, hence causing symptoms such as pain, cramping, or numbness in the upper calf area. Symptoms in the lower calf would typically be associated with more proximal arterial segments like femoral or iliac arteries. So, option D correctly matches the ischemic symptoms with the appropriate vascular supply.
Question 3 of 5
His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. This can manifest as spotting or heavier bleeding outside of the regular menstrual cycle. It is important to differentiate metrorrhagia from other types of abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia (excessive flow), oligomenorrhea (infrequent bleeding), and polymenorrhea (fewer than 21 days between menses) in order to address and diagnose the underlying cause accurately.