Mr. Edwards complains of cramps and difficulties with walking. The cramps occur in his calves consistently after walking about 100 yards. After a period of rest, he can start to walk again, but after 100 yards these same symptoms recur. Which of the following would suggest spinal stenosis as a cause of this pain?

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Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Mr. Edwards complains of cramps and difficulties with walking. The cramps occur in his calves consistently after walking about 100 yards. After a period of rest, he can start to walk again, but after 100 yards these same symptoms recur. Which of the following would suggest spinal stenosis as a cause of this pain?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Relief of the pain with bending at the waist is a key hallmark of spinal stenosis. This position helps relieve the pressure on the nerves in the spinal canal, which is often the root cause of the leg symptoms experienced by the patient. The symptoms described by Mr. Edwards, such as cramps in the calves after walking a certain distance, followed by relief with rest and recurrence upon walking again, are highly suggestive of spinal stenosis. This condition involves narrowing of the spinal canal, leading to compression of the nerves and resulting in symptoms like leg cramps, weakness, and difficulty walking, especially with prolonged activity. The relief of symptoms when bending forward (e.g., leaning on a shopping cart while walking) is a characteristic feature of neurogenic claudication associated with spinal stenosis.

Question 2 of 9

A patient comes to the emergency room for evaluation of shortness of breath. To which anatomic region would you assign the symptom?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is commonly associated with issues related to the heart and cardiovascular system. Conditions such as heart failure, coronary artery disease, or arrhythmias can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath. Therefore, the symptom of shortness of breath would be assigned to the cardiac anatomic region.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following may be missed unless the patient is placed in the left lateral decubitus position and auscultated with the bell?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placing the patient in the left lateral decubitus position and auscultating with the bell is important to detect subtle sounds like the mitral stenosis murmur, opening snap of the mitral valve, and S3 and S4 gallops. The left lateral decubitus position helps bring the heart closer to the chest wall, allowing for better transmission of these sounds that may be missed in the supine position.

Question 4 of 9

A man's wife is upset because when she hugs him with her hands on his left shoulder blade, "it feels creepy." This came on gradually after a recent severe left-sided rotator cuff tear. How long does it usually take to develop muscular atrophy with increased prominence of the scapular spine following a rotator cuff tear?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Following a severe rotator cuff tear, it typically takes around 2-3 months for muscular atrophy to develop with increased prominence of the scapular spine. This is due to disuse of the affected shoulder muscles leading to muscle wasting and changes in the bony structures around the shoulder blade. Over time, the lack of muscle activity causes the shoulder blade to become more prominent and noticeable, which can result in altered sensations during activities like hugging. The gradual onset of these changes aligns with the timeline provided in the question, where the wife started to feel discomfort in her husband's left shoulder blade after the recent severe rotator cuff tear.

Question 5 of 9

What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal is typically .5 to 1 pound per week. This rate of weight loss is considered safe and sustainable in the long term. Losing weight too quickly (options B, C, D) can be harmful to your health and may lead to muscle loss, nutritional deficiencies, and a slow metabolism. Rapid weight loss is also harder to maintain in the long run. Gradual weight loss of .5 to 1 pound per week allows for healthy changes to diet and exercise habits, making it more likely to be maintained over time. It is also more likely to result in lasting weight loss and overall improvements in health and well-being.

Question 6 of 9

A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

Question 7 of 9

Today her pressure is 168/94 and pressure on the other arm is similar. What would you do next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with a blood pressure of 168/94 on both arms, it indicates poorly controlled hypertension. Hypertension can have various causes, including kidney-related issues. Referring the patient to nephrology would be the appropriate next step to evaluate and manage any potential underlying kidney conditions contributing to the uncontrolled blood pressure. The nephrologist can conduct further tests and assessments to determine the root cause and provide specialized care for the patient's condition. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation and targeted management plan for the patient's hypertension.

Question 8 of 9

You are growing fatigued of performing a maneuver on examination because you have never found a positive and are usually pressed for time. How should you next approach this maneuver?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with ear pain. She is an avid swimmer. The history includes pain and drainage from the left ear. On examination, she has pain when the ear is manipulated, including manipulation of the tragus. The canal is narrowed and erythematous, with some white debris in the canal. The rest of the examination is normal. What diagnosis would you assign this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's history of swimming and presenting symptoms of ear pain, drainage, and manipulation tenderness are suggestive of external otitis, commonly known as swimmer's ear. External otitis is an infection of the outer ear canal, which can be caused by prolonged moisture exposure, trauma, or bacterial/fungal infections. The narrowed and erythematous canal with white debris is characteristic of this condition. Otitis media (Choice A) typically presents with deep ear pain, hearing loss, and sometimes fever, but does not involve the ear canal. Perforation of the tympanum (Choice C) would present with sudden relief of pain and possible drainage from the ear. Cholesteatoma (Choice D) is characterized by a painless cyst or mass in the middle ear, not presenting with these acute ear canal symptoms.

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