Mr. Tony is nervous about a colonoscopy scheduled for tomorrow. The nurse describes the test explaining that:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a colonoscopy is a procedure that allows visual examination of the large intestine. During a colonoscopy, a flexible tube with a camera is inserted through the rectum to examine the colon for abnormalities like polyps or cancer. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Visual examination of the esophagus and stomach is typically done using an upper endoscopy. C: A radiographic examination uses X-rays, not a camera, to visualize structures. D: A fluoroscopic examination involves real-time X-ray images and is often used for examining the small intestine, not the large intestine like in a colonoscopy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because healing by second intention refers to a wound that is left open to fill in with granulation tissue. This process allows for the wound to heal from the inside out, promoting tissue regeneration. Explanation: 1. Option A is incorrect because healing by second intention does not involve approximating or stitching wound edges together. 2. Option B is incorrect because stapling a wound after an infection does not necessarily relate to healing by second intention. 3. Option D is incorrect because although the wound may be contaminated, healing by second intention does not mean it cannot be closed at all. In summary, the correct answer is C because it accurately describes the process of healing by second intention, which involves allowing an open wound to fill in with granulation tissue.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because basophils are not only involved in the general inflammatory process but are primarily associated with allergic reactions. Basophils release histamine and other chemicals that contribute to allergic responses. Choice B is incorrect because eosinophils do increase during allergic reactions and parasitic invasion. Choice C is correct as macrophages are known to participate in multiple episodes of phagocytosis, clearing pathogens and debris. Choice D is also correct as monocytes do differentiate into macrophages once they enter body tissues to perform their immune functions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spironolactone (Aldactone). Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action, which inhibits aldosterone. Aldosterone promotes potassium excretion, so inhibiting it can lead to potassium retention and hyperkalemia. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic that can actually cause hypokalemia. Furosemide (B) is a loop diuretic that also can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic and is not associated with significant effects on potassium levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased cardiac output. In a patient with STEMI, a low blood pressure and high heart rate indicate decreased cardiac output, which is a life-threatening condition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further complications like cardiogenic shock. Anxiety (A), acute pain (B), and stress management (C) are important but not immediate priorities in this scenario. Managing the patient's hemodynamic stability is paramount to ensure adequate tissue perfusion and prevent further deterioration.