Mr. Steve is brought to the medical ward. the next day, he wants to know about his illness. The nurse on duty replied,'You don't need to know your diagnosis'. Which of the following rights of the patient is violated? Right to_____.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The right being violated in this scenario is the right to obtain from his physician complete current information concerning his diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Patients have the right to be fully informed about their health status and to understand the details of their condition, treatment options, and likely outcomes. Withholding this information can prevent the patient from participating in their own care decisions and can violate their autonomy and right to make informed choices about their health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oxytocin release is responsible for the mild cramping and uterine contractions experienced by the new mother while breastfeeding. When a baby suckles at the breast, it stimulates nerve endings that signal the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in stimulating the contraction of the uterine muscles, helping the uterus to contract back to its pre-pregnancy size. This process, known as uterine involution, is essential for postpartum recovery and preventing excessive bleeding. Therefore, the new mother's experience of mild cramping and uterine contractions while breastfeeding is a normal physiological response mediated by the release of oxytocin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is the most effective nursing intervention in preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. Lactulose works by promoting the elimination of ammonia in the colon through its laxative effect, thereby reducing ammonia levels in the blood. High ammonia levels are associated with the development of hepatic encephalopathy. By administering lactulose as prescribed, nurses can help reduce the risk of encephalopathy and manage symptoms effectively. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is important in assessing the effectiveness of lactulose therapy, but administering lactulose is the primary nursing intervention in this situation. Dietary protein restriction is also commonly recommended; however, lactulose administration is the most vital intervention in this scenario. Additionally, encouraging increased fluid intake is important for overall liver health but is not as specific to preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy as administering lactulose.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is a serious complication that can occur within the first 24 hours after childbirth. It is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide. Therefore, during the immediate postpartum period, the first priority nursing intervention should be focused on observing for signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage, such as excessive bleeding, abnormal vital signs, and changes in uterine tone. Early detection and prompt intervention can prevent severe complications and save the mother's life. Monitoring urinary output, taking vital signs, and checking level of responsiveness are important aspects of postpartum care but observing for postpartum hemorrhage takes precedence due to its critical nature.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a cervical collar in the management of trauma patients is to immobilize the cervical spine. This is crucial in cases of suspected cervical spine injury to prevent any further damage and to maintain spinal stability. By providing support and restricting movement in the cervical spine region, a cervical collar helps prevent potential spinal cord injuries and associated neurological deficits. It is essential to immobilize the cervical spine until a thorough evaluation can be carried out to determine the extent of injury, as any movement of the spine during this period can worsen the damage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters following exposure to poison ivy is characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis. Poison ivy contains an oil called urushiol, which is known to cause this type of skin reaction in individuals who are sensitive to it. The linear streaks are often a result of the plant brushing against the skin. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition characterized by the formation of intraepidermal blisters, typically not associated with linear streaks or exposure to irritants like poison ivy. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by subepidermal blisters, and herpes zoster presents with a painful rash following reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in a dermatomal pattern, not typically in linear streaks.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acute otitis media is the most likely condition responsible for this presentation. The sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea are classic symptoms of acute otitis media. Otoscopic examination revealing a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks further supports the diagnosis. The bulging of the tympanic membrane is due to the accumulation of fluid and pus behind it, causing the characteristic appearance. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to help clear the infection and relieve symptoms. If left untreated, acute otitis media can lead to complications such as perforation of the eardrum or mastoiditis.