ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. RR is being prepared for surgery. Nursing care would include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Assessment of neurologic signs establishes baseline for post-op care. 2. Helps detect any changes post-surgery. 3. Enables prompt intervention if any issues arise. 4. Planning activities (B) is not a priority pre-surgery. 5. Enema (C) may not be necessary for all surgeries. 6. Explaining complications (D) is important but not a primary pre-op nursing care.
Question 2 of 9
Which of these signs suggests that a client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neck vein distention. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, causing fluid overload. This can manifest as neck vein distention due to increased venous pressure. Tetanic contractions (A) and weight loss (B) are not typical complications of SIADH; tetany is more associated with hypocalcemia and weight loss is not a common manifestation. Polyuria (D) is actually the opposite of what is seen in SIADH, which is characterized by water retention and concentrated urine.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassess the patient and situation. The nurse should reassess to determine the cause of the pressure ulcer, evaluate the effectiveness of the current turning schedule, and identify any contributing factors. This allows for a more targeted intervention plan. B: Incorrect. Simply increasing the frequency of turning may not address the underlying issue causing the pressure ulcer. C: Incorrect. Delegating turning to nursing assistive personnel without reassessment may not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. D: Incorrect. Applying medication without reassessment may not address the underlying cause of the pressure ulcer and could potentially worsen the condition.
Question 4 of 9
A 40 year-old female nurse had a fecal impaction and was admitted to the hospital. The physician orders an oil retention enema followed by a cleansing enema. What is the rationale for administering the oiul enema first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: soften the fecal mass and lubricate the walls of the rectum and colon. First, the oil retention enema helps soften the fecal mass, making it easier to pass. Second, the oil lubricates the walls of the rectum and colon, reducing friction and making the passage of stool smoother. This helps prepare the fecal impaction for removal during the subsequent cleansing enema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the primary goal of softening the fecal mass and lubricating the walls of the intestines to facilitate the removal of the impaction.
Question 5 of 9
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a disease process involving the sacral plexus can impact bladder function (choice A), sexual activity (choice B), and bowel management (choice C). The sacral plexus is responsible for innervating pelvic organs and lower limb muscles, so dysfunction in this area can lead to issues in these functions. Bladder problems can manifest as urinary retention or incontinence, sexual activity may be affected due to changes in sensation or muscle control, and bowel management can be disrupted leading to constipation or incontinence. Therefore, assessing all these areas is crucial to understand the full impact of the disease process on the individual's quality of life.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures. Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure. Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure. Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure. Summary: - Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin. - Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario. - Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.
Question 7 of 9
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is the medication of choice for anaphylaxis that the nurse should anticipate would be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Question 9 of 9
The patient database reveals that a patient has decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation when ambulating, reports of shortness of breath when getting out of bed, and a productive cough. Which elements will the nurse identify as defining characteristics for the diagnostic label of Activity intolerance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Activity intolerance is defined as insufficient physiological or psychological energy to endure or complete required or desired daily activities. Step 2: In the scenario, the patient experiences shortness of breath when getting out of bed, indicating decreased ability to tolerate physical activity. Step 3: This shortness of breath is a defining characteristic of activity intolerance as it reflects the patient's limited ability to perform activities of daily living. Step 4: Other symptoms like decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation, and productive cough may be related to other health issues but are not specific to activity intolerance. Step 5: Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it includes a key defining characteristic of activity intolerance, while other choices do not directly relate to the concept.