ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Reyes is extremely confused. The nurse provide new information slowly and in small amounts because;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Confusion or delirium can be a defense against further stress. This is because providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming Mr. Reyes, who is already confused. This approach allows him to process and understand the information more effectively without adding to his stress levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Destruction of brain cells has occurred, interrupting mental activity - This is not the most appropriate explanation as it assumes irreversible damage to the brain, which is not mentioned in the question. C: Teaching based on information progressing from the simple to the complex - While this may be a valid teaching strategy in general, it does not address Mr. Reyes' specific state of confusion and the need to reduce stress. D: A minimum of information should be given, since he is unaware of surrounding - This choice does not address the underlying reason for providing information slowly, which is to manage stress and confusion, rather than solely focusing on the
Question 2 of 9
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should always prioritize communication with the patient, especially when the patient is alert and oriented. Speaking only to the patient's daughter could undermine the patient's autonomy and right to be involved in their care. It is important for the nurse to directly address the patient to gather accurate information and ensure patient-centered care. Making eye contact (A), leaning forward (C), and nodding periodically (D) are all appropriate communication techniques that show attentiveness and engagement with the patient, which are crucial in building rapport and trust.
Question 3 of 9
A woman sees her primary care provider because of extreme fatigue for the past 2 months; she difficulty lifting even light objects. Her physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which of the ff. tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tensilon test. The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium (Tensilon) to temporarily improve muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients, confirming the diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect: A (Mestinon test) is not a standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, B (Pulmonary function studies) are not specific for myasthenia gravis, and C (Quinine tolerance test) is not a relevant test for this condition.
Question 4 of 9
Correct method of mouth to mouth respiration is that the victim’s chin is held:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Downward) because it helps to maintain a clear airway for effective mouth-to-mouth respiration. By holding the victim's chin downward, you can ensure proper alignment of the airway, allowing the tongue to fall forward and prevent obstruction. Holding the chin forward (Choice A) may cause the airway to close, holding it backward (Choice B) may strain the neck, and holding it sideward (Choice C) may not provide optimal airway alignment. Holding the chin downward is the most effective and safe method for providing mouth-to-mouth respiration.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse needs to administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G. it is supplied in a vial of 5,000,000 units of powder for injection. Instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water. How manu mL should the nurse draw up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3.8 mL. To calculate the volume needed, first determine the concentration of the solution after reconstitution: 2.4 million units / 5,000,000 units = 0.48. Next, divide the desired dose by the concentration: 2.4 million units / 0.48 = 5 mL. Since the instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water, the total volume will be 13 mL. To find the volume of the powder to draw up, subtract the water volume from the total volume: 13 mL - 8 mL = 5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should draw up 5 mL of the reconstituted solution, which is equivalent to 3.8 mL of powder for injection. Incorrect choices: A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the dilution factor of adding sterile water to the powder for injection. Option A is less than the
Question 6 of 9
In an individual with Sjogren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moisture replacement. Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the moisture-producing glands, leading to dryness in the eyes, mouth, and other mucous membranes. Nursing care should focus on managing these symptoms by providing moisture replacement through artificial tears, lubricating eye drops, and hydrating mouthwashes. This helps prevent complications such as corneal damage and dental issues. Nutritional supplementation (B) may be needed if there are difficulties in eating due to dry mouth, but it is not the primary focus. Electrolyte balance (C) and arrhythmia management (D) are not directly related to the symptoms of Sjogren's syndrome and are therefore not the main priorities in nursing care for this condition.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following tests would the nurse use as an initial screening test to determine hearing loss?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whisper voice test. This test is used as an initial screening for hearing loss because it is simple, quick, and easily administered by a nurse. The nurse would whisper words or numbers at a specific distance from the patient to assess their ability to hear and repeat the whispered sounds accurately. This test provides a quick indication of potential hearing impairment. The other choices are incorrect: A: Romberg test assesses balance and not hearing. B: Caloric test evaluates the vestibular system, not hearing. C: Otoscopic examination is used to examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane, not to screen for hearing loss.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is observing a client receiving antiplatelet therapy for adverse reactions. Antiplatelet drugs most commonly produce which hypersensitivity reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Antiplatelet drugs commonly cause hypersensitivity reactions like bronchospasm due to their effects on platelet function. They can trigger an allergic response leading to bronchoconstriction. Difficulty hearing (A) is not a common hypersensitivity reaction to antiplatelet therapy. Confusion (B) is more commonly associated with central nervous system effects rather than hypersensitivity reactions. Agranulocytosis (D) is a severe drop in white blood cells and is not typically a hypersensitivity reaction to antiplatelet drugs.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.