ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Mariano was on his way home from a party. Apparently, he got drunk and lost his balance and suffered a vehicular accident. Upon arrival at the hospital, the nurse noticed that his only injury is an open fracture of the left humerus. Which assessment finding by the nurse is critical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: status of client’s tetanus immunization. It is critical because an open fracture poses a risk of infection, and tetanus prophylaxis is necessary to prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus is caused by a bacterium commonly found in soil and can enter the body through open wounds. Assessing the client's tetanus immunization status helps determine the need for a tetanus booster to prevent potential complications. Incorrect choices: B: Current blood alcohol level - While relevant to the situation, the priority in this case is preventing infection from the open fracture. C: Support systems available at home to assist with care - Important for discharge planning but not the immediate priority. D: Last time client voided - Not critical in this scenario compared to preventing infection from the open fracture.
Question 2 of 9
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is highly indicative of breast cancer. This finding suggests an invasive tumor pulling on the skin, causing dimpling. Other choices are incorrect because slight breast asymmetry (A) is common, bloody nipple discharge (C) can be benign or due to other conditions, and multiple freely movable masses (D) are more indicative of benign breast conditions like fibrocystic changes.
Question 3 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin works by cross-linking DNA, leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis and ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cancer cells. B: It’s cell cycle-phase specific - This is incorrect because mitomycin is not specific to a particular phase of the cell cycle. C: It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis, not RNA synthesis. D: It inhibits protein synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin's main mechanism of action is through DNA cross-linking, not protein synthesis inhibition.
Question 4 of 9
A client is scheduled for surgery for an abdominal hysterectomy. During the preoperative assessment, the client states, 'I am very nervous and scared to have surgery.' What client outcome is the priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Resolve the client’s anxiety. Addressing the client's anxiety is the priority because it can impact their overall surgical experience, recovery, and outcomes. Resolving anxiety can improve the client's emotional well-being, enhance cooperation during surgery, and reduce postoperative complications related to stress. Providing emotional support and reassurance should be the initial focus to help the client feel more comfortable and confident about the upcoming surgery. The other choices are not the priority in this situation: A) Evaluating the need for antibiotics can be addressed later in the preoperative process, C) Providing preoperative education is important but not the immediate priority over addressing anxiety, and D) Preparing the client for surgery includes various components, but emotional well-being should be addressed first.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse explains to a client that she will administer his first insulin dose in his abdomen. How does absorption at the abdominal site compare to absorption at other sites?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Abdominal injection sites have a higher blood supply, leading to faster absorption. 2. Insulin absorption is faster in areas with more blood vessels. 3. Rapid absorption at the abdomen results in quicker onset of action. 4. Other sites may have slower absorption due to less blood flow. Summary: A: Incorrect. Absorption is faster at abdominal sites due to increased blood flow. B: Incorrect. Absorption varies based on injection site blood supply. C: Correct. Abdominal injection sites have rapid insulin absorption. D: Incorrect. Insulin absorption is consistent based on blood flow at injection sites.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is providing nursing care to a group of patients. Which actions are direct care interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ambulating a patient. Direct care interventions involve hands-on activities directly impacting patient outcomes. Ambulating a patient is a direct care intervention as it involves physically assisting the patient to move, promoting circulation, preventing complications, and improving overall well-being. Inserting a feeding tube (B) and performing resuscitation (C) are also direct care interventions as they involve immediate patient care actions. Documenting wound care (D) is not a direct care intervention as it involves recording information about a care activity rather than physically performing the care itself.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding will alert the nurse that the goal has been met?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it meets the goal of maintaining a heart rate of 78 beats/min. This specific date ensures the consistency of the heart rate within the desired range. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the goal as they either have a different heart rate or occur on a different date. Therefore, A is the only option that accurately reflects the goal being met on the specified date.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with AIDS about complications of the disease. Which of the following is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). PCP is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS due to the weakened immune system, making patients vulnerable to this fungal infection. PCP is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients. Toxoplasmosis (B) is also common but not as prevalent as PCP in AIDS. Candidiasis (C) is a common fungal infection but not the most common in AIDS. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (D) is a bacterial infection and not typically considered an opportunistic infection in AIDS.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following complications can occur if a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A clot can enter the circulation. When a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed, the force can dislodge the clot, allowing it to enter the circulation and potentially leading to serious complications such as embolism. Incorrect choices: B: An air embolism can enter the circulation - In the context of a clotted cannula, air embolism is less likely compared to a clot entering the circulation. C: A painful arterial spasm can occur - Arterial spasm is a potential complication but not directly related to flushing a clotted cannula. D: Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur - Flushing a clotted cannula may not specifically lead to fluid extravasation, as it is more related to needle dislodgement or improper placement.