ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. M is receiving hospice care for a terminal illness. He wants to make sure his daughter is allowed to make any decisions regarding his care should he become unable to do so. What document would permit his daughter to do this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Durable power of attorney. This legal document allows Mr. M to appoint his daughter as his healthcare proxy, granting her the authority to make medical decisions on his behalf if he becomes incapacitated. A: Expressed contract involves clear terms agreed upon by both parties, not relevant here. B: Implied contract arises from actions rather than explicit agreement, not applicable in this situation. D: A living will outlines an individual's medical treatment preferences, but does not grant decision-making authority to another person.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 3 of 9
To assist them enhance their performance at work, the nurse manager should review regularly pertaining to the staff's
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Job description is crucial for clarifying roles and responsibilities, ensuring staff understand their duties. Step 2: Regular review of job descriptions helps align staff performance with organizational goals and expectations. Step 3: It allows for identifying areas of improvement and providing necessary support and resources. Step 4: Academic performance in college, family dynamics, and number of incident reports are not directly related to work performance. Summary: Regularly reviewing staff job descriptions is essential for enhancing performance by clarifying roles, aligning expectations, and identifying areas for improvement. Other choices lack direct relevance to work performance.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salary of nurses. In a study, the researcher is likely to exclude salary as it is not directly related to the quality of patient care. The focus should be on factors like responsiveness, caring attitude, and competence of nurses, which directly impact patient outcomes. Including salary may introduce bias and distract from the main objective of studying patient care quality. Responsiveness, caring attitude, and competence are crucial aspects of nursing care that directly influence patient satisfaction and health outcomes. Salary, on the other hand, is an external factor that may not directly correlate with the quality of care provided.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows on the web spaces of the hands and wrists. The patient reports a history of close contact with an individual diagnosed with a similar condition. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.
Question 6 of 9
Before admitting the client, you should FIRST make sure that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining the client's own consent is the first step in ensuring the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own care. This is in line with ethical principles of informed consent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consent should come directly from the client, not from a spouse, family member, or social worker. Choice B violates the principle of individual autonomy, choice C is not the priority before admission, and choice D is not the appropriate person to provide consent.
Question 7 of 9
Select the medication that should be discussed by the nurse with the attending physician before administering it to patient with acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atropine. Atropine is a mydriatic agent that can exacerbate acute angle closure glaucoma by dilating the pupil and potentially worsening the condition. The nurse should discuss with the attending physician before administering it to avoid worsening the patient's condition. A: Isopto carpine eye drops are actually used in the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma as they help in lowering intraocular pressure, so there is no need to discuss this with the physician. B: Mannitol is used as an osmotic diuretic to reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma, and it does not directly affect the pupil, so it does not require discussion with the physician before administration. C: Corticosporin ophthalmic is a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid used to treat eye infections and inflammation, but it does not have a direct effect on worsening acute angle closure glaucoma, so it does
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following actions should be taken first when encountering a person experiencing an allergic reaction with signs of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the severity of the reaction. This should be the first action taken because it helps determine the urgency of the situation and guides subsequent steps. Assessing the severity allows for appropriate intervention - from calling emergency services if the reaction is severe, to administering medication if necessary. A: Administering an epinephrine auto-injector should only be done if the severity of the reaction warrants it, as it is a potent medication that can have serious side effects if used inappropriately. B: Positioning the person comfortably is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction takes precedence to ensure prompt and appropriate care. C: Monitoring vital signs is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction is crucial in determining the immediate course of action.
Question 9 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.