ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Kawasaki, a 23-year old industrial worker, was burned severely in an industrial accident. He has second degree burns on his right leg and arm, and on his left leg. He has third degree burns on his left arm. The triage nurse, using the rule of nines, estimates the extent of burn as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rule of nines is a method used to estimate the extent of burns on a patient's body. According to this rule, each major body part is assigned a percentage value that represents the total body surface area (TBSA). In this case, Mr. Kawasaki has second-degree burns on his right leg and arm (9% each) and left leg (9%) and third-degree burns on his left arm (9%). Adding these percentages together, we get a total of 36%, which corresponds to the extent of burn on Mr. Kawasaki's body. Choice A (18%) is incorrect because it only considers one arm and one leg, neglecting the other affected areas. Choice B (45%) is incorrect as it overestimates the extent of burns by including additional body parts not affected. Choice D (54%) is also incorrect as it includes more body parts than those actually burned. Therefore, the correct answer is C (36%) as it accurately reflects the distribution of burns based
Question 2 of 9
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse performs an intervention for a collaborative problem. Which type of intervention did the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interdependent. In this scenario, the nurse performed an intervention for a collaborative problem, which involves working together with other healthcare professionals to address the issue. Interdependent interventions require collaboration and communication among healthcare team members to achieve the best outcomes for the patient. Choice A (Dependent Nursing) refers to interventions that require an order from a healthcare provider. Choice B (Independent) involves nursing actions that the nurse can initiate without the need for a healthcare provider's order. Choice D (Physician-initiated) specifically denotes interventions initiated by a physician without direct involvement from the nurse. In this case, the nurse's intervention for a collaborative problem aligns with the definition of interdependent intervention, making it the correct choice.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassess the patient and situation. The nurse should reassess to determine the cause of the pressure ulcer, evaluate the effectiveness of the current turning schedule, and identify any contributing factors. This allows for a more targeted intervention plan. B: Incorrect. Simply increasing the frequency of turning may not address the underlying issue causing the pressure ulcer. C: Incorrect. Delegating turning to nursing assistive personnel without reassessment may not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. D: Incorrect. Applying medication without reassessment may not address the underlying cause of the pressure ulcer and could potentially worsen the condition.
Question 5 of 9
Approximately how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 500 ml. When someone loses 0.5 kg of weight, it is estimated that about 500 ml of fluid has been lost, as 1 kg of body weight is roughly equivalent to 1 liter of fluid. This fluid loss is due to water loss through sweating, breathing, and urine. Choice A (50 ml) is too small of an amount for a significant weight loss. Choice B (750 ml) is too high and would correspond to a larger weight loss. Choice D (75 ml) is also too small to account for a 0.5 kg weight loss.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. Kawasaki, a 23-year old industrial worker, was burned severely in an industrial accident. He has second degree burns on his right leg and arm, and on his left leg. He has third degree burns on his left arm. The triage nurse, using the rule of nines, estimates the extent of burn as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rule of nines is a method used to estimate the extent of burns on a patient's body. According to this rule, each major body part is assigned a percentage value that represents the total body surface area (TBSA). In this case, Mr. Kawasaki has second-degree burns on his right leg and arm (9% each) and left leg (9%) and third-degree burns on his left arm (9%). Adding these percentages together, we get a total of 36%, which corresponds to the extent of burn on Mr. Kawasaki's body. Choice A (18%) is incorrect because it only considers one arm and one leg, neglecting the other affected areas. Choice B (45%) is incorrect as it overestimates the extent of burns by including additional body parts not affected. Choice D (54%) is also incorrect as it includes more body parts than those actually burned. Therefore, the correct answer is C (36%) as it accurately reflects the distribution of burns based
Question 7 of 9
What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing frequent mouth care to Mr. Franco is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting oral hygiene. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for mouth care in this case is to address the physical consequences of a seizure, such as tongue biting and potential injury, rather than thirst, tactile stimulation, or prevention of oral mucosal issues related to mouth breathing in a comatose patient.
Question 8 of 9
While planning for proportionate distribution of restricted fluid volumes, what is the reason for a nurse to ensure that the client is actively involved during the development of the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Involving the client in planning increases their understanding and ownership of the plan. Step 2: Understanding leads to better compliance with therapy recommendations. Step 3: Compliance improves outcomes and prevents complications. Step 4: Thus, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D lack direct links to client involvement in planning and compliance.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a client with a cerebellar brain tumor may experience impaired balance due to the cerebellum's role in coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and other injuries. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures are not directly related to the cerebellum's functions in balance and coordination. Therefore, these choices are incorrect for this specific nursing diagnosis.