ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Kawasaki, a 23-year old industrial worker, was burned severely in an industrial accident. He has second degree burns on his right leg and arm, and on his left leg. He has third degree burns on his left arm. The triage nurse, using the rule of nines, estimates the extent of burn as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rule of nines is a method used to estimate the extent of burns on a patient's body. According to this rule, each major body part is assigned a percentage value that represents the total body surface area (TBSA). In this case, Mr. Kawasaki has second-degree burns on his right leg and arm (9% each) and left leg (9%) and third-degree burns on his left arm (9%). Adding these percentages together, we get a total of 36%, which corresponds to the extent of burn on Mr. Kawasaki's body. Choice A (18%) is incorrect because it only considers one arm and one leg, neglecting the other affected areas. Choice B (45%) is incorrect as it overestimates the extent of burns by including additional body parts not affected. Choice D (54%) is also incorrect as it includes more body parts than those actually burned. Therefore, the correct answer is C (36%) as it accurately reflects the distribution of burns based
Question 2 of 9
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a disease process involving the sacral plexus can impact bladder function (choice A), sexual activity (choice B), and bowel management (choice C). The sacral plexus is responsible for innervating pelvic organs and lower limb muscles, so dysfunction in this area can lead to issues in these functions. Bladder problems can manifest as urinary retention or incontinence, sexual activity may be affected due to changes in sensation or muscle control, and bowel management can be disrupted leading to constipation or incontinence. Therefore, assessing all these areas is crucial to understand the full impact of the disease process on the individual's quality of life.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff blood vessel is commonly affected by thrombophlebitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, veins deep in the lower extremities, due to stasis and immobility in the legs causing blood to pool and predispose to thrombus formation. This is known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Veins deep in the upper extremities (A) are less commonly affected. The popliteal vein of the leg (B) is a common site for DVT, but it is not the most commonly affected. Veins connected to the heart (D) are arteries, not veins, and are not typically involved in thrombophlebitis.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following medications can be used to quickly reduce SOB in a crisis situation for a patient with end-stage respiratory disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: IV morphine is the correct choice as it is a potent analgesic and has a rapid onset of action to reduce shortness of breath (SOB) in a crisis situation. Step 2: Oral cortisone (A) is not suitable for quick relief of SOB as it has a slower onset of action. Step 3: IM meperidine (C) is an opioid analgesic but not commonly used for managing SOB in end-stage respiratory disease. Step 4: IV propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and not indicated for immediate relief of SOB in a crisis situation.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when assisting a patient who has the nursing diagnosis ofAltered Thought Process with Persona! Hygiene Needs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it offers the patient autonomy by providing a choice between brushing their teeth independently or having assistance. This empowers the patient to make decisions regarding their personal hygiene, promoting independence and self-esteem. Choice A does not offer a choice or empower the patient. Choice B focuses solely on the location of the toothbrush and does not address the patient's needs. Choice C does not provide the patient with a sense of control over their hygiene routine. By contrast, choice D acknowledges the patient's needs, offers a choice, and encourages independence.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the medication of choice for anaphylaxis that the nurse should anticipate would be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Question 7 of 9
A client has an external fixation device on his leg due to a compound fracture. The client says that the device and swelling make his leg look ugly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in his care plan based on the client’s concern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed body image. The client's concern about the external fixation device making his leg look ugly indicates a disturbance in his perception of his own body image. This diagnosis focuses on the client's feelings and emotions related to his appearance, which can impact his self-esteem and psychological well-being. Rationale: 1. Impaired physical mobility (A) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario as the client's concern is related to the appearance of his leg, not his ability to move. 2. Risk for infection (C) is not the best choice because the client's concern is not directly related to the risk of infection but rather to the aesthetic aspect of his leg. 3. Risk for social isolation (D) is not the most suitable diagnosis as the client's concern is more about his own perception of his appearance rather than the potential impact on his social interactions.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of blood to a client’s who’s anemic. After its removal from the refrigerator, the blood should be administered within:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 2 hours. Blood should be administered within 30 minutes to 4 hours after removal from the refrigerator to prevent bacterial growth and maintain its efficacy. Option C falls within this timeframe, ensuring safety and effectiveness. Option A (1 hour) is too short, while option B (4 hours) and option D (6 hours) exceed the recommended timeframe, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and compromising the quality of the blood product.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is admitted who has had severe vomiting for 24 hours. She states that she is exhausted and weak. The results of an admitting ECG show flat T waves and ST segment depression. Choose the most likely potassium (K ) value for this patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2.0mEq/L. Severe vomiting can lead to hypokalemia, characterized by flat T waves and ST segment depression on ECG. This is due to decreased potassium levels affecting cardiac repolarization. A potassium level of 2.0mEq/L is dangerously low and consistent with the ECG findings in this scenario. Choices A, C, and D have potassium levels that are not reflective of severe hypokalemia, therefore they are incorrect. Option A (4.0mEq/L) is within the normal range, option C (8.0mEq/L) is elevated, and option D (2.6mEq/L) is higher than the correct value of 2.0mEq/L.