ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Garcia, a 41-year old chronic alcohol drinker is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood. He was diagnosed to have a bleeding gastric ulcer and suddenly develops sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen. This likely indicates:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen in a patient with a bleeding gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer. Perforation leads to leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This presentation requires immediate surgical intervention. Option A is incorrect as intestinal development does not correlate with the symptoms described. Option B is incorrect because inflammation of the esophagus would not lead to a rigid boardlike abdomen. Option D is incorrect as the sudden onset of symptoms is more indicative of a complication like perforation rather than the development of additional ulcers.
Question 2 of 9
The cause of death of most AIDS patients who develop multiple opportunistic infections is/are the following: a.Weakened immune system impairs response to therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Most AIDS patients with multiple opportunistic infections die due to a weakened immune system impairing response to therapy. When the immune system is compromised, the body struggles to fight off infections effectively, even with treatment. This results in the infections becoming more severe and ultimately leading to death. Summary of Other Choices: B: Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection - While this is true, it doesn’t directly address the cause of death in AIDS patients with multiple infections. C: Infection cannot be treated effectively - This is not entirely accurate as infections can be treated, but the weakened immune system hinders the response to treatment. Overall, Choice A is the most accurate as it directly links the weakened immune system to the inability to respond effectively to therapy, leading to fatal outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following questions or statements would be appropriate in eliciting further information when conducting a health history interview?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it encourages the patient to provide more detailed information about the cause of their pain, which can help in understanding the underlying health issues. Choice A is judgmental and may make the patient defensive. Choice B is closed-ended and does not prompt for specific details. Choice D is directive and may not be well-received by the patient. Asking the patient to elaborate on what caused their pain allows for a more open-ended response, leading to a more thorough health history assessment.
Question 4 of 9
The client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The physician prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium (Tensilon) is administered. Which of the following would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: An improvement of the weakness. Edrophonium is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor that helps differentiate between myasthenic and cholinergic crises in myasthenia gravis. In cholinergic crisis, there is an overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors leading to excessive acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, causing muscle weakness. Administering edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle weakness in cholinergic crisis due to the increased availability of acetylcholine. The other choices are incorrect because: A: No change suggests the client is not in cholinergic crisis. C: Complaints of muscle spasms are more indicative of myasthenic crisis. D: A temporary worsening of the condition is not expected in cholinergic crisis.
Question 5 of 9
An adult who has gastroenteritis and is on digitalis ha lab values of: K 3.2 mEq/L, Na 136 mEq/L, Ca 8.8 mg/dl, and Cl 98 mEq/L. the nurse puts which of the following on the client’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. The lab value of K at 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. 2. Digitalis can worsen hypokalemia and lead to toxicity. 3. Avoiding foods rich in potassium will prevent further lowering of potassium levels. 4. This intervention helps prevent potential digitalis toxicity in the client. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Stopping digitalis therapy abruptly can lead to rebound effects and worsen the condition. B. Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are not relevant to the client's current lab values. D. While observing for digitalis toxicity is important, addressing the low potassium level is a more immediate concern in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This is the highest priority because compromised airway clearance can lead to life-threatening complications such as respiratory distress or hypoxia. Ensuring effective airway clearance is crucial in preventing respiratory compromise and maintaining oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk to the client's physiological well-being. Treating disturbed body image, anxiety, or imbalanced nutrition are important but can be addressed after ensuring the client's airway is clear and they are able to breathe effectively.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use parallel bars or a walker. Before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up, the nurse should provide assistive devices like parallel bars or a walker to ensure safe and supported ambulation. This helps prevent falls and promotes independence. Using incontinence pads (B) is not directly related to mobility. Applying an abdominal binder (C) is not necessary before the client gets up. Using a footboard (D) is more relevant for positioning in bed, not for assisting with ambulation.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following tests would the nurse use as an initial screening test to determine hearing loss?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whisper voice test. This test is used as an initial screening for hearing loss because it is simple, quick, and easily administered by a nurse. The nurse would whisper words or numbers at a specific distance from the patient to assess their ability to hear and repeat the whispered sounds accurately. This test provides a quick indication of potential hearing impairment. The other choices are incorrect: A: Romberg test assesses balance and not hearing. B: Caloric test evaluates the vestibular system, not hearing. C: Otoscopic examination is used to examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane, not to screen for hearing loss.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.