Mr. Garcia, a 41-year old chronic alcohol drinker is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood. He was diagnosed to have a bleeding gastric ulcer and suddenly develops sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen. This likely indicates:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen in a patient with a bleeding gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer. Perforation leads to leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This presentation requires immediate surgical intervention. Option A is incorrect as intestinal development does not correlate with the symptoms described. Option B is incorrect because inflammation of the esophagus would not lead to a rigid boardlike abdomen. Option D is incorrect as the sudden onset of symptoms is more indicative of a complication like perforation rather than the development of additional ulcers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use parallel bars or a walker. Before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up, the nurse should provide assistive devices like parallel bars or a walker to ensure safe and supported ambulation. This helps prevent falls and promotes independence. Using incontinence pads (B) is not directly related to mobility. Applying an abdominal binder (C) is not necessary before the client gets up. Using a footboard (D) is more relevant for positioning in bed, not for assisting with ambulation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This is the highest priority because compromised airway clearance can lead to life-threatening complications such as respiratory distress or hypoxia. Ensuring effective airway clearance is crucial in preventing respiratory compromise and maintaining oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk to the client's physiological well-being. Treating disturbed body image, anxiety, or imbalanced nutrition are important but can be addressed after ensuring the client's airway is clear and they are able to breathe effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood. Chills, dyspnea, and urticaria are indicative of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which occurs when the recipient's immune system attacks the donor's red blood cells. This can lead to various symptoms, including fever, chills, difficulty breathing, and hives. This type of reaction is most commonly seen with mismatched blood types. Option B (A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood) is incorrect because Rh incompatibility typically leads to hemolytic disease of the newborn, not an immediate transfusion reaction. Option C (A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by bacterial contamination of donor blood) is incorrect as bacterial contamination would present with symptoms such as fever and sepsis, not chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. Option D (None of the above) is incorrect as the symptoms presented align with a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Break the task down into simple steps. This response is the best because it helps the patient by breaking down the task into manageable parts, making it less overwhelming and more achievable. By providing clear and simple steps, the patient can focus on one aspect at a time, reducing frustration and increasing the likelihood of successful completion. Choice A is incorrect because performing the task for the patient does not promote independence or skill development. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's feelings of frustration without offering a solution. Choice D is incorrect because having another patient demonstrate may not address the specific needs and abilities of the recovering stroke patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should primarily communicate with the patient, not just the daughter. The nurse should engage the patient in conversation, address them directly, and ensure their needs and concerns are being addressed. Speaking only to the daughter could neglect the patient's autonomy and lead to potential communication barriers. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they all involve appropriate communication techniques with the patient, such as making eye contact, leaning forward to show attentiveness, and nodding to indicate understanding. These actions demonstrate good communication skills and rapport-building with the patient, which are important in nursing practice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A rapid, thready pulse. After paracentesis, rapid removal of ascitic fluid can lead to a decrease in intravascular volume, causing hypovolemia and subsequent compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia (rapid pulse). This is a crucial sign that the nurse should monitor for early detection of hypovolemia. B: Decreased peristalsis is not directly related to paracentesis and is not an immediate concern post-procedure. C: Respiratory congestion is not a common complication of paracentesis and is not the most immediate concern. D: An increased temperature is not a typical response to paracentesis and is not a priority observation post-procedure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.