ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Garcia, a 41-year old chronic alcohol drinker is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood. He was diagnosed to have a bleeding gastric ulcer and suddenly develops sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen. This likely indicates:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sudden sharp pain in the midepigastric region with a rigid boardlike abdomen in a patient with a bleeding gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer. Perforation leads to leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This presentation requires immediate surgical intervention. Option A is incorrect as intestinal development does not correlate with the symptoms described. Option B is incorrect because inflammation of the esophagus would not lead to a rigid boardlike abdomen. Option D is incorrect as the sudden onset of symptoms is more indicative of a complication like perforation rather than the development of additional ulcers.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. nursing interventions would have the highest priority in the plan of care for the postoperative eye patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report sudden onset of acute pain. This is the highest priority because sudden onset of acute pain postoperatively can indicate a serious complication such as hemorrhage or infection. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. A: Do not leave the patient unattended at any time - While important for safety, it is not the highest priority compared to addressing sudden onset of acute pain. B: Teach the patient not to bend over - Important for preventing complications postoperatively, but not as urgent as addressing sudden onset of acute pain. D: Apply sandbags to either side of the head - This intervention is not typically indicated for postoperative eye patients and would not address the potential serious complication of sudden onset of acute pain.
Question 3 of 9
The cause of death of most AIDS patients who develop multiple opportunistic infections is/are the following: a.Weakened immune system impairs response to therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Most AIDS patients with multiple opportunistic infections die due to a weakened immune system impairing response to therapy. When the immune system is compromised, the body struggles to fight off infections effectively, even with treatment. This results in the infections becoming more severe and ultimately leading to death. Summary of Other Choices: B: Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection - While this is true, it doesn’t directly address the cause of death in AIDS patients with multiple infections. C: Infection cannot be treated effectively - This is not entirely accurate as infections can be treated, but the weakened immune system hinders the response to treatment. Overall, Choice A is the most accurate as it directly links the weakened immune system to the inability to respond effectively to therapy, leading to fatal outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use parallel bars or a walker. Before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up, the nurse should provide assistive devices like parallel bars or a walker to ensure safe and supported ambulation. This helps prevent falls and promotes independence. Using incontinence pads (B) is not directly related to mobility. Applying an abdominal binder (C) is not necessary before the client gets up. Using a footboard (D) is more relevant for positioning in bed, not for assisting with ambulation.
Question 5 of 9
Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as a general indicator of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcitonin level. Smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels due to the effect of nicotine. However, an elevated serum calcitonin level is not a general indicator of cancer. Step 1: Understand that smoking can increase serum calcitonin levels. Step 2: Recognize that elevated serum calcitonin levels are not specific to cancer and can be influenced by other factors. Step 3: Differentiate between a marker that is specific to cancer (such as carcinoembryonic antigen) and one that can be affected by smoking but not necessarily indicative of cancer (serum calcitonin). Thus, while smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels, it is not a reliable indicator of cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff signs may be revealed by a visual examination in a client with tonsillar infection if group A streptococci is the cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White patches on the tonsils. Group A streptococci infection commonly presents with exudative tonsillitis, characterized by the presence of white patches or pus on the tonsils. This is due to the inflammatory response triggered by the bacteria. Hypertrophied tonsils (B), hemorrhage in the tonsils (C), and bleeding in the tonsils (D) are less likely to be visual signs of a streptococcal infection and are more indicative of other conditions or complications. Therefore, white patches on the tonsils are the most specific visual sign associated with group A streptococci tonsillar infection.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the most common type of cancer in women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. It causes the most deaths in women because it is often diagnosed at advanced stages when treatment options are limited. Breast cancer, although common, has a higher survival rate. Brain cancer is relatively rare compared to lung cancer. Colon and rectal cancer, while prevalent, do not surpass lung cancer in terms of mortality rates in women.
Question 9 of 9
Which question would be most appropriate for a nurse to ask a patient to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking about the frequency of bowel movements is crucial in assessing diarrhea, a common symptom. This information helps determine the severity and duration of the condition, guiding the nurse in identifying potential causes and appropriate interventions. Choice A focuses on the cause of upset stomach, not specifically diarrhea. Choice C is more related to incontinence rather than diarrhea. Choice D is important but not directly related to establishing a nursing diagnosis for diarrhea. Therefore, Choice B is the most appropriate question to assist in accurately assessing and diagnosing diarrhea.