ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mr. Chua has developed liver cirrhosis. Nurse Bea expects alteration in which laboratory values?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prothrombin time. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to produce clotting factors is impaired, leading to prolonged prothrombin time. This indicates an increased risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as carbon dioxide levels are not typically affected by liver cirrhosis. Choice C, gastric pH, is unrelated to liver function. Choice D, white blood cell count, is not directly affected by liver cirrhosis. Therefore, the alteration in prothrombin time is the most relevant laboratory value to monitor in this case.
Question 2 of 9
A client with suspected lung cancer is scheduled for thoracentesis as part of the diagnostic workup. The nurse reviews the client’s history for conditions that might contraindicate this procedure. Which condition is a contraindication for thoracentesis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bleeding disorder. Thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove fluid. A bleeding disorder increases the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. This can lead to complications such as hematoma formation, pneumothorax, or even life-threatening bleeding. It is crucial to assess and address bleeding disorders before performing thoracentesis to ensure the safety of the client. A: A seizure disorder is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless uncontrolled seizures could compromise the safety of the procedure. B: Anemia alone is not a contraindication for thoracentesis, as it does not directly increase the risk of complications during the procedure. C: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to tolerate the procedure.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse evaluate as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 CD4+ cells. In AIDS, the immune system is severely compromised, leading to a decrease in CD4+ T cells. A CD4+ count below 200 cells/mm3 is a key indicator of AIDS, as it signifies advanced immunodeficiency. Choices A, B, and C all have CD4+ cell counts above 200, which would not support the occurrence of AIDS. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate a CD4+ count of 200 cells as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS.
Question 4 of 9
A charge nurse is evaluating a new nurse’s plan of care. Which finding will cause the charge nurse to follow up? Assigning a documented nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database. This is incorrect because developing nursing diagnoses should be based on a comprehensive assessment and analysis of the patient's data. By developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database, the new nurse may overlook important information that could impact the accuracy of the diagnosis and subsequent care plan. Choice A (intravenous antibiotics) is incorrect because assigning a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on IV antibiotics is a common and appropriate practice given the increased risk of infection associated with invasive procedures. Choice B (Completing an interview and physical examination before adding a nursing diagnosis) is incorrect because nursing diagnoses should be developed based on the data collected during the assessment process, which includes the interview and physical examination. It is not necessary to complete the entire assessment before assigning a nursing diagnosis. Choice D (Including cultural and religious preferences in the database) is incorrect because while it is important to consider cultural and religious preferences in care planning, this does not directly relate to the
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff is an initial sign or symptom of acute bronchitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Acute bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes. 2. An initial sign of acute bronchitis is a nonproductive cough due to irritation of the bronchial tubes. 3. Anorexia and labored breathing may occur later as the condition progresses. 4. Gastric ulceration is not typically associated with acute bronchitis. Therefore, choice A (Nonproductive cough) is the correct answer as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of acute bronchitis, while the other choices are not typically observed in the initial stages of the condition.
Question 6 of 9
A client with serum glucose level of 618mg/dl is admitted to the facility. He’s awake and oriented, has hot dry skin, and has the following vital signs: temperature of 100.6F (38.1C), heart rate of 116 beats/min, and blood pressure of 108/70mHg. Based on these assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis take highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration." The client's high serum glucose level of 618mg/dl indicates severe hyperglycemia, leading to dehydration. The client's hot, dry skin and elevated temperature can be signs of dehydration, impacting the body's ability to regulate temperature. Dehydration can also affect other vital signs, contributing to the elevated heart rate and low blood pressure. Addressing ineffective thermoregulation is crucial as it can lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because addressing dehydration and ineffective thermoregulation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as heatstroke or hypothermia. Deficient volume, decreased cardiac output, and imbalanced nutrition are important but not as urgent in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Chua has developed liver cirrhosis. Nurse Bea expects alteration in which laboratory values?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prothrombin time. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to produce clotting factors is impaired, leading to prolonged prothrombin time. This indicates an increased risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as carbon dioxide levels are not typically affected by liver cirrhosis. Choice C, gastric pH, is unrelated to liver function. Choice D, white blood cell count, is not directly affected by liver cirrhosis. Therefore, the alteration in prothrombin time is the most relevant laboratory value to monitor in this case.
Question 9 of 9
When the patient’s signature is witnessed by the nurse on the surgical consent, which of the following does the nurse’s signature indicate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's signature indicates that they verified the patient's signature on the consent form. This step ensures that the patient has signed the document willingly. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse doesn't obtain informed consent, that's the responsibility of the physician. Choice B is incorrect because nurses do not provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse witnessing the signature doesn't imply they answered all surgical procedure questions.