ATI RN
Pediatric Musculoskeletal Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Most hemangiomas do not necessitate medical intervention and involute spontaneously; however, if complications arise and treatment is warranted, oral propranolol is the mainstay of therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that often resolve without intervention. When treatment is needed due to complications like ulceration or obstruction, oral propranolol is the first-line therapy due to its efficacy in reducing proliferation.
Question 2 of 5
Common fracture patterns that should increase the index of suspicion of child abuse include all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Toddler's fractures are common accidental injuries in young children, unlike the others which are more suggestive of abuse.
Question 3 of 5
A 6-year-old child presented with acute onset of pain in the groin and anterior thigh, he gives history of an upper respiratory tract infection in the preceding 10 days. The patient is afebrile, walks with a painful limp, and has normal white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Transient synovitis is a common, self-limiting condition post-viral infection, matching the presentation and normal labs.
Question 4 of 5
The MOST common cause of in-toeing in a child younger than 2 years old is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metatarsus adductus is the most frequent cause of in-toeing in children under 2, typically benign and positional.
Question 5 of 5
A 13-year-old boy presented with pain, tenderness, and local swelling over the tibial tubercle mostly during and after activity for the last 3 months. Of the following, the MOST likely cause is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is common in active adolescents, causing tibial tubercle pain from repetitive traction.