ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse assesses that a patient has not voided in 6 hours. Which question should the nurse ask to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Urinary retention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.
Question 4 of 9
An 83-year old client diagnosed with COPD has been receiving 1L of oxygen via nasal cannula. When the relatives visited, the sister of the client increased the oxygen to 7L per minute because she says that the client “looks like he is having difficulty getting air.” What should the nurse’s initial action be?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to choose option C: Notify the physician. Increasing oxygen without a healthcare provider's order can be harmful, especially in COPD patients prone to retaining carbon dioxide. The nurse should communicate the situation to the physician to assess the client's condition and adjust the oxygen therapy appropriately. Option A is incorrect as it neglects the potential risks of high oxygen levels. Option B is incorrect as immediate decrease without proper assessment can be dangerous. Option D is not the priority when the client's oxygen therapy needs evaluation.
Question 5 of 9
Victorio is being managed for diarrhea. Which outcome indictes that fluid resuscitation is successful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because firm skin turgor indicates adequate hydration, a key goal of fluid resuscitation in diarrhea management. Firm skin turgor reflects the body's fluid balance and hydration status. When fluid resuscitation is successful, the patient's skin turgor improves due to replenished fluid levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly assess hydration status or the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Passing formed stools, decrease in stool frequency, and absence of perianal burning may be positive outcomes in diarrhea management, but they do not specifically indicate successful fluid resuscitation.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.
Question 7 of 9
There seems to be a positive correlation between type 2 diabetes mellitus and:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.
Question 9 of 9
Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.