Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 9

Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.

Question 2 of 9

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the ff symptoms is observed in the client with Right Sided Heart Failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to fluid backup in the body causing dependent pitting edema due to fluid accumulation in the lower extremities. Orthopnea and exertional dyspnea are typically seen in left-sided heart failure. Hemoptysis is associated with conditions like pulmonary embolism or lung cancer, not right-sided heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the symptoms of right-sided heart failure.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.

Question 5 of 9

The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by all of the following mechanisms except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because the kidneys do not reabsorb carbon dioxide to regulate acid-base balance. Carbon dioxide is mainly regulated by the lungs through respiration. The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions, reabsorbing or excreting bicarbonate (HCO3-) into the blood, and retaining or excreting hydrogen ions. Reabsorbing carbon dioxide is not a mechanism utilized by the kidneys for acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are correct mechanisms involved in acid-base balance regulation by the kidneys.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse identifies a fall risk when assessing a patient upon admission. The nurse and the patient agree that the goal is for the patient to remain free from falls. However, the patient fell just before shift change. Which action is the nurse’s priority when evaluating the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Identify factors interfering with goal achievement. This is the priority action because it focuses on understanding what caused the patient to fall despite the goal of preventing falls. By identifying the factors interfering with goal achievement, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the care plan to prevent future falls. Choice B is incorrect because counseling the nursing assistive personnel and removing the fall risk sign does not address the root cause of the fall. Choice C is incorrect because shifting responsibility to the charge nurse for documentation does not address the immediate need to assess and address the factors contributing to the fall. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the fall is important but not the priority when the immediate concern is understanding why the fall occurred.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is aware that the shift of body fluids associated with the intravenous administration of albumin occurs by the process of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filtration. Albumin is a large protein molecule that cannot pass through the semipermeable membrane of blood vessels. Therefore, the shift of body fluids associated with intravenous albumin administration occurs through the process of filtration, where fluid moves across the membrane due to a pressure difference. Osmosis (B) involves the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, which is not the case for albumin. Diffusion (C) is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration, which is not how albumin moves. Active transport (D) requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient, which is not the mechanism for albumin movement in the body.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is instructed to perform preoperative preparation for the management of a client with malignant tumors. Which of the ff is the most important factor of the nursing management plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintaining the integrity of the urinary system. This is crucial in preoperative preparation for a client with malignant tumors to prevent complications such as urinary obstruction or infection. Assessing symptoms of peritonitis (B) is important but not as critical as ensuring urinary system integrity. Insertion of an ostomy pouch (A) and nasogastric tube diversion procedure (D) may be necessary interventions for some cases, but they are not as essential as ensuring the urinary system's integrity to prevent serious complications.

Question 9 of 9

An 83-year old client diagnosed with COPD has been receiving 1L of oxygen via nasal cannula. When the relatives visited, the sister of the client increased the oxygen to 7L per minute because she says that the client “looks like he is having difficulty getting air.” What should the nurse’s initial action be?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to choose option C: Notify the physician. Increasing oxygen without a healthcare provider's order can be harmful, especially in COPD patients prone to retaining carbon dioxide. The nurse should communicate the situation to the physician to assess the client's condition and adjust the oxygen therapy appropriately. Option A is incorrect as it neglects the potential risks of high oxygen levels. Option B is incorrect as immediate decrease without proper assessment can be dangerous. Option D is not the priority when the client's oxygen therapy needs evaluation.

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