ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.
Question 2 of 9
Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Abnormal involuntary movements are a hallmark feature, while cognitive decline and emotional disturbances are also commonly observed. Therefore, all three manifestations are typically present in individuals with Huntington's disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these symptoms alone does not encompass the full spectrum of clinical manifestations seen in Huntington's disease.
Question 3 of 9
A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed loratadine (Claritin). On a follow-up visit, the client tells the nurse, “I take one 10-mg of Claritin with a glass of water two times daily”. The nurse concludes that the client requires additional teaching about this medication because:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a client with a fractured rib?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Apply immobilization device after examination by physician Rationale: 1. Immobilization helps reduce pain and prevent further injury. 2. Physician examination ensures proper diagnosis and treatment plan. 3. Immobilization device may include chest binders or splints for support. 4. It is crucial to follow medical advice to prevent complications. Summary: B: Discouraging deep breaths can lead to respiratory complications. C: Advising against analgesics can increase pain and hinder recovery. D: Increased fluid intake is important but not directly related to rib fracture care.
Question 5 of 9
What common problem is related to outcome identification and planning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Failing to involve the client in the planning process. This is because involving the client in the planning process is crucial for promoting client-centered care and ensuring that the outcomes are realistic and aligned with the client's goals. By engaging the client, the nurse can better understand their preferences and values, leading to more effective planning and goal setting. Choice B is incorrect as collecting data to establish a database is related to assessment, not outcome identification and planning. Choice C is incorrect as stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses is actually a key component of effective outcome identification and planning. Choice D is incorrect as writing clear nursing orders, although important, is more related to implementation rather than outcome identification and planning.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient’s ear is draining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse approaches a hospitalized poststroke patient from the patient’s left side to do an assessment. The patient is staring straight ahead, and does not respond to the nurse’s presence or voice. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.
Question 9 of 9
A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. Tamoxifen can cause serious ocular side effects like retinopathy and corneal changes. These adverse reactions can lead to vision impairment or loss, which is crucial to report immediately to prevent permanent damage. Headache (B), hearing loss (C), and anorexia (D) are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and do not pose immediate threats to the client's health compared to vision changes. It is important for the nurse to prioritize educating the client on recognizing and reporting vision changes promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent irreversible consequences.