Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language and right-sided motor function. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia due to damage to Broca's area, causing difficulty in speaking and forming words. Paralysis on the right side of the body would result from damage to the motor cortex in the left hemisphere. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical deficits seen in a person with a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex in a right-handed individual.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate their experience. It shows respect for the client's perspective and promotes open communication. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks client involvement. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's interpretation rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as accusatory or judgmental, lacking empathy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because systemic lupus erythematosus can lead to inflammation in the lungs, causing abnormal lung sounds. Dysphagia (choice A) is not typically associated with lupus. Dryness or itching of genitalia (choice B) is more characteristic of conditions like yeast infections or dermatitis. Decreased visual acuity or blindness (choice C) is not a common manifestation of lupus. Abnormal lung sounds (choice D) are commonly seen in lupus patients due to inflammation and possible lung involvement.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Apply immobilization device after examination by physician Rationale: 1. Immobilization helps reduce pain and prevent further injury. 2. Physician examination ensures proper diagnosis and treatment plan. 3. Immobilization device may include chest binders or splints for support. 4. It is crucial to follow medical advice to prevent complications. Summary: B: Discouraging deep breaths can lead to respiratory complications. C: Advising against analgesics can increase pain and hinder recovery. D: Increased fluid intake is important but not directly related to rib fracture care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools. Thrombocytes are platelets responsible for blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability, resulting in bleeding tendencies. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are common signs of bleeding due to decreased platelet function. A: Sore throat and swollen glands are more indicative of a possible infection or inflammation, not related to thrombocyte depression. B: Pernicious anemia with weakness is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, not directly related to thrombocyte depression. D: Thickening of blood and bruising are not typical signs of decreased platelet function, but rather may be indicative of other conditions like clotting disorders.