ATI RN
CNS Drugs Pharmacology PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Morphine has high affinity for the following opioid receptor(s)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pharmacology, morphine is a well-known opioid analgesic that acts on multiple opioid receptors in the central nervous system (CNS). The correct answer is D) All of the above because morphine has a high affinity for all three major opioid receptors: µ (Mu), κ (Kappa), and δ (Delta). 1. Mu (µ) receptor: Morphine's primary mechanism of action is through the µ-opioid receptor. Activation of the µ receptor leads to analgesia, sedation, and respiratory depression. 2. Kappa (κ) receptor: Morphine also has affinity for the κ-opioid receptor. Activation of the κ receptor can produce analgesia, sedation, and may be involved in dysphoria and diuresis. 3. Delta (δ) receptor: Morphine interacts with the δ-opioid receptor, which contributes to its analgesic effects and may also influence tolerance development. Educationally, understanding the affinity of morphine for multiple opioid receptors is crucial for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals. It highlights the complex pharmacodynamics of opioids and the potential for varied effects based on receptor interactions. Knowing that morphine acts on multiple receptors also underscores the importance of individual variability in response to opioid therapy and the potential for side effects related to these interactions.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following opioids is more potent than morphine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the potency of opioids is crucial for safe and effective pain management. In this question, the correct answer is B) Fentanyl, which is more potent than morphine. Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid that is significantly more potent than morphine, with a rapid onset and short duration of action. This makes it ideal for managing severe pain, especially in situations where immediate relief is necessary, such as during surgery or in emergency settings. A) Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is less potent than morphine and has a higher risk of toxicity and side effects, especially in prolonged use. It is not recommended for long-term pain management. C) Dextropropoxyphene is a weak opioid and has been withdrawn from the market in many countries due to its potential for serious cardiac toxicity, making it a poor choice for pain management. D) Tramadol is a unique opioid-like medication that has a dual mechanism of action. While it can provide pain relief, it is less potent than morphine and fentanyl, making it a second-line option for moderate to moderately severe pain. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding opioid potency in clinical practice. Healthcare professionals need to be knowledgeable about the various opioids available, their potency relative to each other, and their appropriate use to ensure safe and effective pain management for patients. Remembering that fentanyl is more potent than morphine is essential for making appropriate drug choices in different clinical scenarios.
Question 3 of 5
Aspirin produces analgesia by
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Both (a) and (b). Aspirin produces analgesia by both preventing the sensitization of peripheral pain receptors and affecting the gating of pain impulses at the spinal level. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX). By inhibiting COX, aspirin reduces the production of prostaglandins, which are chemicals in the body that promote inflammation, fever, and pain. Option A (Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors) is incorrect because while aspirin does inhibit the sensitization of peripheral pain receptors indirectly by reducing the production of inflammatory mediators, its primary mechanism of action is through COX inhibition. Option B (Affecting gating of pain impulses at the spinal level) is incorrect because aspirin primarily exerts its analgesic effects by inhibiting COX and reducing prostaglandin production, rather than directly affecting the gating of pain impulses at the spinal level. Option C (Raising pain threshold at subcortical level) is incorrect because aspirin's mechanism of action is not related to raising the pain threshold at the subcortical level. Understanding the mechanism of action of aspirin in producing analgesia is essential for healthcare professionals when prescribing this medication for pain management. It is important for students to grasp the pharmacological basis of how drugs work to ensure safe and effective patient care.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesics has been cleared for pediatric use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Ibuprofen, which has been cleared for pediatric use. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used in children for its analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties. It is available in various pediatric formulations and dosages, making it a safe and effective option for pain relief in children. Option A) Indomethacin is not typically used in pediatric patients due to its potential for serious side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding and kidney problems, especially in this population. Option C) Ketorolac is generally not recommended for pediatric use due to its potential for renal toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects. Option D) Piroxicam is not commonly used in pediatric patients due to its long half-life and higher risk of adverse effects compared to other NSAIDs. As an educator, it is crucial to understand the pharmacological differences between various anti-inflammatory analgesics and their appropriateness for use in pediatric populations. Ibuprofen stands out as a safer choice for children due to its well-established safety profile and availability of pediatric formulations, making it a suitable option for managing pain and inflammation in pediatric patients.
Question 5 of 5
The glucocorticoid described as a highly potent anti-inflammatory agent is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Dexamethasone. Dexamethasone is considered a highly potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoid due to its strong anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. Methylprednisolone (option A) is also a glucocorticoid but is not as potent as dexamethasone in terms of its anti-inflammatory effects. Cortisone (option B) is a corticosteroid that is less potent compared to dexamethasone in its anti-inflammatory actions. Triamcinolone (option C) is another glucocorticoid with anti-inflammatory properties, but it is not as potent as dexamethasone. Educationally, understanding the varying potencies of glucocorticoids is crucial in pharmacology, especially when choosing the appropriate medication for inflammatory conditions. Dexamethasone's high potency makes it a preferred choice in severe inflammatory conditions where a strong anti-inflammatory effect is required. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals in selecting the most effective treatment options for patients based on the severity of their conditions.