Montelukast is:

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NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Montelukast is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Montelukast is an antagonist at leukotriene receptors, making option A the correct choice. Leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators involved in conditions like asthma. Montelukast is commonly used in the management of asthma and allergic rhinitis by blocking leukotriene receptors, reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction. Option B is incorrect because Montelukast is not used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. Options C and D are also incorrect as Montelukast is actually indicated for bronchial asthma and not contraindicated, and it is not used for ulcerative colitis. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action and indications of chemotherapy drugs like Montelukast is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam. It is important for them to differentiate between various drug classes, their uses, and contraindications to provide safe and effective care to patients receiving these medications.

Question 2 of 5

A 34-year-old male patient with HIV disease presents to the walk-in clinic of the emergency department with pain and blurry vision in his right eye. A dilated ophthalmoscopic exam of the right eye reveals a diffuse retinitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment for the patient with HIV-related retinitis is option B) Administer ganciclovir. Ganciclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat infections caused by cytomegalovirus (CMV), which is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. CMV retinitis can lead to significant visual impairment and even blindness if left untreated. Ganciclovir is effective in treating CMV retinitis and helping to preserve vision in these patients. Option A) Rimantadine is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza A virus infections, not CMV retinitis. Option C) Ribavirin is used for the treatment of certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but not for CMV retinitis. Option D) Temporal artery biopsy is a diagnostic procedure used to assess for conditions like giant cell arteritis, which is not relevant to the treatment of CMV retinitis. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of chemotherapy drugs is crucial for healthcare providers, especially when caring for patients with complex medical conditions like HIV. Knowledge of the specific indications for each medication is essential to ensure the best outcomes for patients. In this case, recognizing the need for ganciclovir in the treatment of CMV retinitis is vital to prevent vision loss in patients with HIV disease.

Question 3 of 5

A 39-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia will be undertaken with fospropofol instead of propofol. Advantages of fospropofol over propofol include which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Lower risk of pain at the injection site. Fospropofol is a water-soluble prodrug of propofol, which is converted to active propofol in the body. The advantage of fospropofol over propofol is that it causes less pain on injection due to its formulation with a prodrug carrier that reduces irritation at the injection site. Option A) Better cerebral perfusion than propofol is incorrect because fospropofol does not have a significant advantage over propofol in terms of cerebral perfusion. Both drugs have similar effects on cerebral perfusion. Option B) Longer half-life than propofol is incorrect because fospropofol actually has a shorter half-life compared to propofol. This characteristic can be advantageous in situations where rapid recovery is desired. Option C) Lower risk of infection is incorrect as both fospropofol and propofol have similar risks of infection. The risk of infection is more related to the general aseptic technique during drug administration rather than the specific drug used. Educationally, understanding the differences between fospropofol and propofol is crucial for healthcare providers administering anesthesia. Knowing the advantages of fospropofol, such as reduced pain on injection, can help in providing a more comfortable experience for patients undergoing procedures requiring anesthesia. It also highlights the importance of selecting the appropriate drug based on the specific needs of the patient and the procedure being performed.

Question 4 of 5

A 24-year-old man complains of night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus over several weeks. Physical exam shows nontender lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. He is started on a chemotherapy regimen including one drug that works primarily by trapping cells in the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle. Which drug is this?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Vincristine. Vincristine works primarily by disrupting the formation of the mitotic spindle, which results in cells being trapped in the M phase of the cell cycle. This action inhibits cell division and leads to cell death, making it effective in treating cancers like Hodgkin's lymphoma, which is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. Option A) Bleomycin functions by causing DNA strand breaks. Option B) Cisplatin works by forming cross-links with DNA. Option C) Etoposide inhibits topoisomerase II enzyme. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of chemotherapy drugs is crucial for nurses and other healthcare professionals. Knowing how each drug works allows for the safe administration of medications, monitoring for side effects, and evaluating treatment efficacy. This knowledge also helps in anticipating and managing adverse reactions, ensuring optimal patient care during chemotherapy treatments.

Question 5 of 5

A 22-year-old sexually active man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with dysuria, penile discharge, and a swollen right knee. A joint aspirate of his right knee reveals many neutrophils as well as some gram-negative diplococci. Which is the best choice to treat his condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Ceftriaxone. The patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gonococcal arthritis, which is commonly caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Ceftriaxone is the preferred treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. It is a third-generation cephalosporin with good efficacy against Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Option B) Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin that is not the drug of choice for treating gonorrhea. Option C) Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid and does not address the underlying bacterial infection. Option D) Meropenem is a broad-spectrum antibiotic typically used for serious infections caused by multi-drug resistant organisms but is not the first-line treatment for gonorrhea. From an educational perspective, understanding the appropriate use of antibiotics is crucial to ensure effective treatment and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. It is essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the current guidelines for treating specific infections to provide optimal care for patients. This case highlights the importance of selecting the correct antibiotic based on the suspected pathogen and its sensitivity profile, as well as considering factors such as patient allergies and comorbidities.

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