Montelukast is:

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NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Montelukast is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, used to treat asthma by blocking bronchoconstriction and inflammation caused by leukotrienes.

Question 2 of 5

A 34-year-old male patient with HIV disease presents to the walk-in clinic of the emergency department with pain and blurry vision in his right eye. A dilated ophthalmoscopic exam of the right eye reveals a diffuse retinitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ganciclovir is the treatment of choice for cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, a common opportunistic infection in HIV patients with low CD4 counts, targeting viral DNA polymerase to halt replication.

Question 3 of 5

A 39-year-old female is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia will be undertaken with fospropofol instead of propofol. Advantages of fospropofol over propofol include which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Fospropofol, a prodrug of propofol, causes less pain at the injection site due to its water-soluble nature, unlike propofol’s lipid emulsion, which can irritate veins.

Question 4 of 5

A 24-year-old man complains of night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus over several weeks. Physical exam shows nontender lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. He is started on a chemotherapy regimen including one drug that works primarily by trapping cells in the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle. Which drug is this?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Vincristine, a vinca alkaloid, inhibits microtubule formation, trapping cells in the mitotic phase (M phase), effective against Hodgkin’s lymphoma with Reed-Sternberg cells.

Question 5 of 5

A 22-year-old sexually active man presents to the ambulatory care clinic with dysuria, penile discharge, and a swollen right knee. A joint aspirate of his right knee reveals many neutrophils as well as some gram-negative diplococci. Which is the best choice to treat his condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for disseminated gonococcal infection (caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, gram-negative diplococci), effective against both genital and joint involvement.

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