Monitoring for a patient prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes:

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Question 1 of 5

Monitoring for a patient prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring for a patient prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes a reticulocyte count one week after therapy is started because reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and an increase in their count indicates the bone marrow's response to iron therapy. This helps evaluate the effectiveness of treatment in increasing red blood cell production. Complete blood count every two weeks throughout therapy (Option B) is not necessary as the primary focus in iron deficiency anemia is on evaluating red blood cell production, which is best reflected by the reticulocyte count. Checking hemoglobin level at one week of therapy (Option C) may not show significant changes as it takes time for iron therapy to increase hemoglobin levels significantly. Reticulocyte count is a more sensitive marker for early response to therapy. INR (International Normalized Ratio) monitoring (Option D) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin, not iron therapy for anemia. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind monitoring parameters for iron deficiency anemia treatment is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide optimal care for patients with this condition. By knowing the significance of specific monitoring tests, healthcare providers can track treatment progress effectively and make informed decisions regarding dose adjustments or additional interventions if needed.

Question 2 of 5

The recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy for a patient with a DVT in their leg is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of treating a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg, the recommended long-term antithrombotic therapy is a direct factor Xa inhibitor, which is option D. Direct factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban, apixaban, or edoxaban have become preferred agents due to their efficacy, safety, and convenience compared to older agents like warfarin. These medications directly inhibit factor Xa in the coagulation cascade, preventing the formation of thrombin and subsequent clot propagation. Option A, low-molecular-weight heparin, is commonly used initially in the acute treatment of DVT but is not recommended for long-term therapy due to the need for subcutaneous injections and monitoring. Option B, warfarin tapered monthly, is no longer the first-line option for long-term anticoagulation due to its narrow therapeutic window, interactions with food and other medications, and the need for frequent monitoring. Option C, aspirin 325 mg daily, is not recommended as the sole therapy for DVT as it is an antiplatelet agent rather than a direct anticoagulant, and its efficacy in preventing DVT extension or recurrence is limited. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate antithrombotic therapy for DVT is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with thrombotic disorders. It is essential to stay updated on current guidelines and evidence-based practices to provide optimal care and prevent complications in patients with DVT.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is false regarding heparin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B) Heparin is usually stored in the mast cells. Heparin is not stored in mast cells; rather, it is synthesized and stored in mast cells in the form of granules. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by binding to plasma antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inhibit activated coagulation factors like thrombin. This action prevents blood clot formation. Therefore, option C is correct as it accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Option A is incorrect because subcutaneous injection of heparin is common practice in clinical settings, especially for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombotic conditions. While hematomas can occur with any injection, proper administration techniques can minimize this risk. Option D is incorrect as protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Protamine sulfate binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. This is an essential aspect of managing patients who have received an excessive dose of heparin. Educationally, understanding the pharmacology of heparin is crucial for healthcare professionals working with patients requiring anticoagulation therapy. It is essential to know the correct administration routes, mechanisms of action, potential side effects, and antidotes to ensure safe and effective patient care. This knowledge helps in preventing adverse events and managing complications associated with heparin therapy.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is presented with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively worsens. Peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Which of the following is not the factor causing this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms and macrocytic anemia suggest vitamin B12 deficiency, commonly caused by chronic atrophic gastritis (reduced intrinsic factor), ileal resection (impaired absorption), tapeworm (competes for B12), and nitrous oxide (inactivates B12). Alcoholism typically causes folate deficiency, not directly B12 deficiency.

Question 5 of 5

A 30 year old patient had presented with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years. Which is the most probably causative organism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most probable causative organism for a 30-year-old patient presenting with fever and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy over the past two years is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (Option C). The rationale behind this is that Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the causative agent of African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), which is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over weeks to months, including lymphadenopathy and systemic manifestations like fever. The infection progresses slowly, often leading to neurological symptoms in the later stages. Option A, Trypanosoma cruzi, is the causative agent of Chagas disease, which typically presents with acute febrile illness followed by chronic cardiac and gastrointestinal complications, not lymphadenopathy. Option B, Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense, causes acute African trypanosomiasis, which has a rapid onset and is not consistent with the chronic presentation described in the case. Option D, Leishmania donovani, is responsible for visceral leishmaniasis, which presents with hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, and fever, but not specifically with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Educationally, understanding the specific clinical manifestations and causative organisms of different hematological diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. This knowledge helps healthcare providers make informed decisions regarding patient management and ensures optimal outcomes for patients.

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