Microscopy of a wound smear revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks. What microorganism is most likely responsible?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: salmonellosis. Zoonotic diseases are those that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Salmonella is not directly transmitted from animals to humans, instead, it is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water. Brucellosis (A), undulant fever (B), and plague (C) are all zoonotic diseases that can be directly transmitted from animals to humans through various means. Therefore, salmonellosis does not fit the definition of a zoonotic disease, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balantidiasis. The large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus described in the stool sample is consistent with Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. Balantidium coli is the only ciliated protozoan parasite that infects humans and presents with these specific characteristics. Giardiasis (B) is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is flagellated, not ciliated. Amoebiasis (C) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which has an amoeboid shape, not ciliated. Trichomoniasis (D) is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which is a flagellated protozoan and does not have a kidney-shaped macronucleus. Hence, the correct diagnosis in this case is Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A (Sabouraud's) is correct: 1. Sabouraud's agar is a selective medium for fungi. 2. Candida is a type of fungus causing candidosis. 3. Sabouraud's agar promotes fungal growth. 4. Candida will grow on Sabouraud's agar, confirming the diagnosis. 5. Other choices are for bacterial culture, not suitable for fungal growth. Summary: - Endo, Jensen's, and Roux are not appropriate for fungal culture. - Sabouraud's agar specifically supports fungal growth, making it the correct choice for confirming candidosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yersinia enterocolitica. This bacterium can contaminate foods and grow at refrigerator temperatures due to its psychrotrophic nature. Yersinia enterocolitica is known to cause foodborne illnesses even when stored at cold temperatures. Shigella sonnei is a human pathogen transmitted through fecal-oral route, Campylobacter jejuni is typically found in poultry and causes food poisoning, and E. coli can cause foodborne illnesses but does not grow well at refrigerator temperatures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis. Barrel-shaped teeth, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are hallmark signs. These occur due to infection of the fetus by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis can lead to various systemic manifestations, including skeletal abnormalities, skin lesions, and neurological complications. Opisthorchiasis, Toxoplasmosis, and Tuberculosis do not typically present with the specific triad described in the question. Opisthorchiasis is a parasitic infection, Toxoplasmosis is caused by a protozoan, and Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus, oxidase-positive, and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause respiratory infections and is commonly found in sputum cultures of patients with such infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) is also a Gram-negative diplococcus but is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis (C) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is not a diplococcus and is not fermentative. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.