Microscopy of a wound smear revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks. What microorganism is most likely responsible?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aminoglycosides. Aminoglycosides are antibiotics that act by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, disrupting protein synthesis in bacteria. This interaction affects the ribosomes directly, leading to inhibition of bacterial protein production. Penicillins (A) work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, Sulfonamides (C) target folic acid synthesis, and Quinolones (D) inhibit DNA gyrase. These mechanisms do not directly affect the ribosomes, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicates a bacterial morphology consistent with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a common cause of pneumonia. This bacterium is known to appear in pairs or short chains on Gram stain. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically presents as clusters of Gram-positive cocci, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod, making them less likely causative agents in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Meat-peptone agar, as it provides a simple nutritive media for bacterial growth. This agar contains meat extract and peptone, which are good sources of nutrients for bacterial growth. Glucose broth (A) is a liquid medium with glucose but lacks other essential nutrients. Ascites (serum) agar (B) is a selective medium used for detecting pathogens in clinical samples. Blood agar (D) is a differential medium used to distinguish different types of bacteria based on hemolytic reactions. Meat-peptone agar is the simplest and most general-purpose medium among the options provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The central dogma of molecular biology, which describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to proteins, was first proposed by Francis Crick. Crick, along with James Watson, discovered the structure of DNA in 1953, leading to the understanding of how genetic information is stored and transmitted. Ernst Ruska was a physicist who developed the electron microscope, not related to genetic information flow. Camillo Golgi was an Italian biologist known for the discovery of the Golgi apparatus, not central to the central dogma. Carl Bender is not a prominent figure in the field of molecular biology. In summary, Francis Crick is the correct answer as he played a pivotal role in introducing the central dogma of molecular biology.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. On Endo agar, lactose-fermenting bacteria produce red colonies due to acid production. Escherichersia coli is a lactose-fermenting, gram-negative bacillus commonly found in the intestines. Salmonella and Shigella are lactose-negative and do not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Proteus is also lactose-negative and doesn't typically grow on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the lactose fermentation and colony color, Escherichia coli is the most likely microorganism present in the fecal sample.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis. Barrel-shaped teeth, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are hallmark signs. These occur due to infection of the fetus by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis can lead to various systemic manifestations, including skeletal abnormalities, skin lesions, and neurological complications. Opisthorchiasis, Toxoplasmosis, and Tuberculosis do not typically present with the specific triad described in the question. Opisthorchiasis is a parasitic infection, Toxoplasmosis is caused by a protozoan, and Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.