ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microscopy of a wound abscess revealed Gram-negative rods producing blue-green pigment with a distinctive odor of jasmine. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which gives the characteristic color seen in the wound abscess. The distinctive odor of jasmine is also a key feature of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Proteus vulgaris (B) and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) do not produce blue-green pigment or have a jasmine-like odor. Escherichia coli (C) typically does not produce blue-green pigment or have a jasmine-like odor.
Question 2 of 9
The First-line tuberculosis drugs include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid and rifampicin. These drugs are considered first-line treatment for tuberculosis due to their high efficacy and low toxicity. Isoniazid targets the cell wall of the tuberculosis bacteria, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis. They are recommended by WHO as the first choice for treating tuberculosis. Choice B (Penicillin and erythromycin) is incorrect because these antibiotics are not effective against tuberculosis bacteria. Choice C (Trimethoprim and third generation cephalosporins) is incorrect because they are not considered first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Choice D (All the listed above can be used depending on their resistance profile) is incorrect because only isoniazid and rifampicin are universally recognized as first-line drugs for tuberculosis regardless of resistance profile.
Question 3 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory received sputum sample of a patient suffering from tuberculosis. Bacterioscopic examination of smears and detection of tuberculosis bacillus can be realized by one of enrichment methods that involves processing of sputum only with solution of caustic soda. What is this method called?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inactivation. In this method, the sputum sample is processed with a solution of caustic soda, which helps to kill any contaminants present and preserve the tuberculosis bacillus for microscopic examination. This step is crucial in ensuring accurate detection of the bacillus. A: Homogenization involves breaking down the sample to make it uniform, but it does not necessarily involve using caustic soda for inactivation. C: Flotation is a method used to separate different components based on their density and is not specific to inactivating tuberculosis bacillus. D: Filtration involves passing a sample through a filter to separate particles based on size and is not related to inactivating the tuberculosis bacillus.
Question 4 of 9
Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man's feces. The body is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round shaped back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For whom are the described attributes typical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The described attributes match those of Balantidium. The presence of cilia, oval shape with a narrowed front and wide back end, visible mouth, two nucleuses, and short vacuoles are all characteristic features of Balantidium. Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan parasite commonly found in the human intestine. The other choices can be eliminated based on specific characteristics: Lamblia lacks cilia and has a different shape, Dysenteric amoeba typically has a single nucleus, and Trichomonas does not have cilia or multiple nuclei. Therefore, based on the specific attributes described, the correct answer is Balantidium (Choice A).
Question 5 of 9
A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.
Question 6 of 9
One of the basic principles of chemotherapy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Selective toxicity. Chemotherapy aims to target cancer cells while minimizing harm to healthy cells, known as selective toxicity. This principle is crucial to effectively treat cancer without causing excessive damage to the patient's body. Accumulation in the macroorganism (B) and causing allergies (C) are not fundamental principles of chemotherapy and can lead to harmful side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the core objective of chemotherapy.
Question 7 of 9
The Staphylococcus aureus toxin, which can cause scalded skin syndrome (SSS), is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: epidermolytic toxin. This toxin specifically targets the epidermis, leading to exfoliation seen in scalded skin syndrome (SSS). Hemolysis (A) refers to the destruction of red blood cells, not relevant to SSS. Enterotoxins (B) cause food poisoning, not SSS. Leucocidins (C) target white blood cells, not pertinent to SSS. Therefore, the epidermolytic toxin (D) is the correct choice for causing SSS.
Question 8 of 9
When examining a patient presumptively diagnosed with food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he ate the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which thrives in low-oxygen environments like improperly canned food. Homemade canned meat poses a higher risk of contamination as it may not have been processed correctly, allowing the bacteria to grow and produce toxins. Custard pastry, sour cream, and strawberries are less likely to cause botulism as they are not typically associated with the bacteria unless improperly handled or stored. Homemade canned meat is the most probable cause based on the characteristic symptoms of botulism and the conditions that favor the growth of Clostridium botulinum in canned food.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is characteristic of obligate anaerobes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obligate anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen. They lack the enzymes needed to detoxify reactive oxygen species generated in the presence of oxygen. This makes them unable to survive in oxygen-rich environments. Choice A is incorrect because obligate anaerobes do not require oxygen to survive. Choice B is incorrect because obligate anaerobes specifically require the absence of oxygen. Choice D is incorrect because obligate anaerobes cannot even tolerate low levels of oxygen.