Microscopy of a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by a capsule. What is the causative agent?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Microscopy of a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by a capsule. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends: characteristic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Surrounded by a capsule: S. pneumoniae is encapsulated, important for virulence. 3. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative rod, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not diplococci.

Question 2 of 9

What is the mechanism of action of the exotoxin C. Diphtheriae?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inhibits protein synthesis. Exotoxin of C. Diphtheriae acts by inhibiting protein synthesis in host cells. This disrupts cellular functions and leads to tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because acetylcholine release is not affected. Choice B is incorrect as it does not involve neurotransmitters. Choice D is incorrect as the exotoxin does have a specific mechanism.

Question 3 of 9

A patient consulted a dentist about itching and burning in the oral cavity; high temperature. The patient was diagnosed with trichomonal gingivostomatitis. What drug should be chosen for his treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Trichomonal gingivostomatitis is caused by the parasite Trichomonas tenax. Step 2: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas. Step 3: Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates Trichomonas parasites in the oral cavity. Step 4: Therefore, the correct drug choice for treating trichomonal gingivostomatitis is Metronidazole. Summary: - Ampicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against Gram-positive bacteria, not parasites. - Gentamicin sulfate (C) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not parasitic infections. - Nystatin (D) is an antifungal medication used for treating fungal infections, not parasitic infections like trichomonal gingivostomatitis.

Question 4 of 9

Artificial active immunity occurs after a vaccination: injecting or taking antigens by mouth. Takes time for T and B cells to be activated but gives relatively long lasting:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: 1. Vaccination introduces antigens to stimulate immune response. 2. T and B cells are activated to produce memory cells for long-lasting protection. 3. Active immunity develops over time post-vaccination. 4. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the process and outcomes. 5. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the process of active immunity. 6. Choice C is incorrect as the process of active immunity is consistent regardless of the situation. 7. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the mechanism and characteristics of artificial active immunity.

Question 5 of 9

Hepatitis B infection may present with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hepatitis B infection can present with jaundice due to liver inflammation, elevated serum aminotransferase levels due to liver damage, and sometimes no symptoms in the acute phase. This comprehensive presentation covers the spectrum of possible clinical manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choices A and B are correct as they are common manifestations of hepatitis B infection. Choice C is incorrect as hepatitis B infection can indeed present with symptoms, making option D the most appropriate choice.

Question 6 of 9

The bacterial component targeted by penicillin is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cell wall. Penicillin targets the cell wall of bacteria by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan, a crucial component of the cell wall. This weakens the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis. Choice A (DNA) is incorrect because penicillin does not directly target DNA. Choice B (Plasma membrane) is incorrect as penicillin primarily affects the cell wall, not the plasma membrane. Choice D (Ribosomes) is incorrect because penicillin does not target bacterial ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis.

Question 7 of 9

A family has two children. The younger child is under the year. The child has developed spastic cough attacks. Similar clinical presentation was observed in the elder preschool child one month ago. The doctor suspects pertussis infection. What method enables retrospective diagnostics of this disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serological. Serological testing involves analyzing blood samples for specific antibodies produced in response to the pertussis infection. This method can detect past infections by identifying the presence of antibodies against the pertussis bacteria in the blood. In this case, since the doctor suspects pertussis infection in both children, serological testing can confirm if they have been exposed to the bacteria. Summary: B: Biological testing does not specifically target pertussis antibodies in the blood. C: Bacteriological testing involves culturing bacteria from samples, which may not be as sensitive for retrospective diagnosis. D: Molecular biological testing focuses on genetic material of the bacteria, which may not provide direct evidence of past infection.

Question 8 of 9

The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Question 9 of 9

On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days