ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microscopy of a smear from a patient with foul-smelling diarrhea revealed large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Balantidiasis. The presence of large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus is characteristic of Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. The ciliated trophozoites of Balantidium coli are unique compared to the other choices. Giardiasis is caused by Giardia lamblia, which has flagella and not cilia. Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which lacks cilia. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which also lacks cilia. Therefore, based on the specific morphology described, the correct diagnosis is Balantidiasis.
Question 2 of 9
There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: five. Escherichia coli can cause enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC), and diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC). Each form has distinct characteristics and pathogenesis. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Question 3 of 9
For isolating Rickettsia, the sample is investigated via:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rickettsia requires living cells for growth and replication. Chick embryos, cell cultures, and lab animals provide a suitable environment for Rickettsia isolation. Skin-allergy tests (A) and serological methods for proving antibodies (B) are not directly used for isolating Rickettsia as they do not support the growth of the bacteria. "None of the above" (D) is incorrect as option C involves the appropriate methods for isolating Rickettsia.
Question 4 of 9
Which structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Capsule. Capsules are a protective layer outside the bacterial cell wall that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis by immune cells. The capsule inhibits phagocytic cells from engulfing the bacteria, making it difficult for them to be recognized and destroyed. A: Flagella - Flagella are not involved in protecting bacteria from phagocytosis. They are responsible for bacterial movement. C: Endospore - Endospores are dormant, resistant structures formed by some bacteria in response to harsh conditions. They do not directly protect against phagocytosis. D: Pili - Pili are hair-like structures used for adhesion and conjugation, not for protection against phagocytosis.
Question 5 of 9
All of the following viruses are enveloped EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hepatitis A virus. This is because Hepatitis A virus is a non-enveloped virus, while choices A, B, and D are all enveloped viruses. Enveloped viruses have a lipid bilayer membrane surrounding their protein capsid, aiding in their ability to infect host cells. Hepatitis C, B, and D viruses all possess this lipid envelope, making them enveloped viruses. Hepatitis A virus, on the other hand, lacks this lipid envelope and is classified as a non-enveloped virus. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Question 6 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.
Question 7 of 9
The most important virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis is crucial for its virulence as it helps the bacteria evade the host immune system by inhibiting phagocytosis. This allows the bacteria to survive and multiply in the host, leading to invasive infections. Exotoxins, beta-lactamase, and pyrogenic toxins are not the main virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis and do not play as significant a role in its pathogenicity as the polysaccharide capsule.
Question 8 of 9
Coxsackie Viruses can cause:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpangina. Coxsackie Viruses are known to cause Herpangina, which is characterized by sore throat, fever, and painful blisters in the mouth and throat. This is because Coxsackie Viruses typically infect the throat and mouth mucosa. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A) is commonly caused by Adenoviruses, not Coxsackie Viruses. Mumps (C) is caused by the Mumps virus, a completely different virus. Poliomyelitis (D) is caused by the Poliovirus, not Coxsackie Viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known pathogenicity of Coxsackie Viruses.
Question 9 of 9
A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental defects. What protozoan disease might have caused the intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, leading to congenital toxoplasmosis. This infection can result in stillbirth, multiple developmental defects, and intrauterine death. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are caused by different parasites and do not typically lead to intrauterine death or developmental defects in the fetus.