ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microscopical examination of an infiltrate removed from the submandibular skin area of a 30 y.o. man revealed foci of purulent fluxing surrounded by maturing granulations and mature connective tissue, the pus contains druses consisting of multiple short rod-like elements with one end attached to the homogenous centre. What disease is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is supported by the presence of purulent foci with druses consisting of short rod-like elements attached to a homogenous center, which is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Actinomycosis commonly presents with granulation tissue and connective tissue formation. B: Tuberculosis does not typically present with druses containing short rod-like elements. C: Syphilis does not typically present with purulent foci or druses. D: Candidosis does not typically present with the described features of purulent fluxing and druses with short rod-like elements.
Question 2 of 9
Which one is true about sexually transmitted infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a soft chancre is a type of sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It presents as a painless ulcer on the genitals. The other choices are incorrect. B is incorrect because STIs can enter the body through various routes, not only the urogenital tract mucosa. C is incorrect because immunity to syphilis is not lifelong; reinfection is possible. D is incorrect because STIs can occur in any country regardless of social status or hygiene levels.
Question 3 of 9
The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, specifically transmitted through contaminated food and water. Shigella dysenteriae causes bacillary dysentery, Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, and Escherichia coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, but not typhoid fever. Identifying the causative agent is crucial for effective treatment and prevention strategies.
Question 4 of 9
A wound smear from a patient revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters. The culture was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. 2. Catalase-positive indicates staphylococci since streptococci are catalase-negative. 3. Coagulase-positive further confirms Staphylococcus aureus, distinguishing it from other staphylococci. Summary: B is incorrect as Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. C is incorrect as Micrococcus luteus is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D is incorrect as Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.
Question 5 of 9
Infectious process is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Infectious process involves interactions between macro and microorganisms. 2. It is not limited to manifested diseases or typical symptoms. 3. The process can occur without leading to a full-blown infectious disease. 4. Choice C correctly captures the dynamic relationship between different organisms. Summary: - A: Incorrect - Infectious process is not solely about clinically manifested diseases. - B: Incorrect - Not all infectious diseases have typical symptoms. - D: Incorrect - Ambulatory form is a specific type, not encompassing all infectious processes.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic diarrhea had stool microscopy revealing flagellated protozoa with two nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan with two nuclei found in the stool. It commonly causes chronic diarrhea. The other choices are incorrect because B: Entamoeba histolytica causes dysentery, not chronic diarrhea; C: Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically found in stool; D: Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan, not flagellated.
Question 7 of 9
Carious cavities of a 29-year-old patient contain the parasitic protozoa. It is established that they relate to the Sarcodina class. Specify these single-celled organisms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. Firstly, it is important to note that Entamoeba gingivalis is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in carious cavities. Secondly, Entamoeba gingivalis belongs to the Sarcodina class, which is characterized by their amoeboid movement using pseudopods. This protozoa is associated with oral health issues, particularly in individuals with poor oral hygiene. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: B: Entamoeba histolutica is known for causing amoebic dysentery, not commonly associated with oral cavities. C: Entamoeba coli is typically found in the human large intestine, not in oral cavities. D: Amoeba proteus is a free-living amoeba commonly used in laboratory studies and not typically associated with oral cavity infections.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory tract. The respiratory tract is likely the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment and has a large surface area lined with mucous membranes that can trap and facilitate the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the respiratory tract serves as a direct pathway for pathogens to reach the bloodstream and other organs. Skin (choice A) is a physical barrier that can prevent pathogen entry, while the gastrointestinal tract (choice B) has acidic pH and enzymes that can kill many pathogens. Conjunctiva (choice D) is a less common portal of entry compared to the respiratory tract due to its smaller surface area and protective mechanisms such as tears.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing exotoxins?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are all capable of producing exotoxins. Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause damage to the host. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, causing tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxin and toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Escherichia coli can produce Shiga toxin and heat-labile toxin. Therefore, all three bacteria listed can produce exotoxins, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the bacteria capable of producing exotoxins.