ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microscopic examination of pus sample taken from mandibular fistula canal and stained by Gram's method has revealed druses with gram-positive coloring in the center and cone-shaped structures with gram-negative coloring. Such morphology is characteristic of the agent of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive bacterium that forms sulfur granules (druses) with gram-positive coloring in the center and filamentous structures resembling cones with gram-negative coloring. This morphology is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Fusobacteriosis (choice A) typically presents with gram-negative rods. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis (choice C) is caused by gram-positive staphylococci, not Actinomyces. Anaerobic infections (choice D) can be caused by various bacteria, but the specific morphology described in the question matches Actinomyces, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
Compared to primary immune response the secondary immune response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the secondary immune response is quicker due to memory B and T cells being already present from the primary response. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure, leading to a faster and more efficient immune response. Choices B and C are incorrect as the secondary response produces more antibodies and requires fewer antigen stimulations. Choice D is also incorrect as the secondary response is faster than the primary response.
Question 3 of 9
What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.
Question 4 of 9
Native microscopic slides are good for observation of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Motility. Native microscopic slides are ideal for observing motility because they allow for the observation of living microorganisms in their natural state. By observing the movement of microorganisms on a native slide, one can assess their motility characteristics accurately. Choice B (Division) is incorrect because native slides may not provide the ideal conditions for observing cell division, as it may be difficult to capture the exact moment of division in a live organism. Choice C (Presence of capsules) is also incorrect because observing capsules usually requires specific staining techniques that may not be suitable for native slides. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as native slides are indeed beneficial for observing motility.
Question 5 of 9
Lysozyme acts on the bacterial:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cell wall. Lysozyme is an enzyme that targets the cell wall of bacteria by breaking down the peptidoglycan layer, leading to bacterial cell lysis. This action disrupts the structural integrity of the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lysozyme does not target the cytoplasm, nucleus, or capsule of bacteria. The primary function of lysozyme is to act on the cell wall, making option B the correct answer in this context.
Question 6 of 9
Bacteriophages are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Firstly, bacteriophages are viruses, not white blood cells or bacteria. They specifically target and infect bacteria, not fungi. This is known as a bacteriophage cycle where the virus injects its genetic material into the bacterial cell to replicate and eventually lyse the cell. This process is specific to bacteria and distinguishes bacteriophages from other microorganisms. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it accurately describes the nature and function of bacteriophages.
Question 7 of 9
Crude herbal drugs must be examined for yeast-like fungi. What agar can ensure development of these microorganisms so that associating microflora will grow very slowly or won't grow at all?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud's peptone agar. This agar is specifically designed for the isolation of yeast and molds due to its low pH and high sugar content, creating an environment conducive for their growth. Yeast-like fungi thrive in this selective medium, while inhibiting the growth of bacteria and other contaminants. Summary: - Sabouraud's peptone agar is ideal for cultivating yeast-like fungi. - Endo agar is used for isolation of gram-negative bacteria, not fungi. - Milk-salt agar is used for lactobacilli and streptococci, not fungi. - Meat infusion agar is a general-purpose medium for cultivation of a wide range of microorganisms, not specifically for yeast-like fungi.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria produce endotoxins that can cause septic shock?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger a systemic inflammatory response if released into the bloodstream. E. coli and Salmonella are common causes of bacterial infections that can lead to septic shock, while P. aeruginosa is a known opportunistic pathogen that can produce endotoxins. Therefore, all three bacteria can cause septic shock by releasing endotoxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce endotoxins that contribute to the development of septic shock.
Question 9 of 9
For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.