Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The patient presented with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. The patient's symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness are classic signs of meningococcal meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause outbreaks in crowded settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice B) is a common cause of bacterial meningitis but typically appears as Gram-positive cocci. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) can also cause meningitis but is more commonly seen in unvaccinated children. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacterium but is not a typical causative agent of meningitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus due to its production of tetanospasmin toxin. This neurotoxin leads to muscle stiffness and spasms characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens is associated with gas gangrene, not tetanus. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections, not tetanus. Escherichia coli is a common gut bacteria and is not responsible for tetanus. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer for causing tetanus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of these symptoms are early signs of rabies. A short period of depression, nausea, and restlessness are common initial symptoms of rabies infection. These symptoms may be followed by more severe manifestations, such as aggression, confusion, and difficulty swallowing. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it encompasses all the early symptoms of rabies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they focus on individual symptoms, whereas rabies typically presents with a combination of these early signs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. The patient's symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness are classic signs of meningococcal meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause outbreaks in crowded settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice B) is a common cause of bacterial meningitis but typically appears as Gram-positive cocci. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) can also cause meningitis but is more commonly seen in unvaccinated children. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacterium but is not a typical causative agent of meningitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Saddle nose is a condition where the bridge of the nose collapses, a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis. This occurs due to inflammation and destruction of cartilage. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. CMV, Rubella, and Toxoplasmosis do not typically cause saddle nose. CMV can result in hearing loss, Rubella can lead to cataracts and heart defects, and Toxoplasmosis may cause hydrocephalus or chorioretinitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: III, IV, V. 1. RNA viruses belong to Group III of the Baltimore classification system because their genetic material is single-stranded RNA. 2. They are also categorized under Group IV as they use reverse transcriptase to replicate their genetic material. 3. Finally, RNA viruses fall under Group V as they have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include all the correct groups that RNA viruses belong to according to the Baltimore classification system.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial ribosomes synthesize proteins. Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis by translating mRNA into amino acids. They are essential for the production of proteins needed for cell function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ribosomes do not synthesize DNA, degrade toxic substances, or assist in cell division. DNA synthesis is carried out by DNA polymerase, degradation of toxic substances is typically done by enzymes, and cell division is primarily regulated by the cell cycle machinery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: crateriform. In a gelatin stab, a saucer-shaped liquefaction indicates a depression or crater-like shape. This term accurately describes the appearance of the liquefaction. A: napiform means turnip-shaped, which is not relevant to the shape in a gelatin stab. B: saccate means pouch-like, which does not match the saucer-shaped description. D: stratiform refers to something in layers, which is not applicable to the shape of the liquefaction. Therefore, C is the most appropriate term to describe the saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab.