Microscopic examination of a microbial culture revealed fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that get violet-blue Gram's stain. What microorganisms were revealed?

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Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Microscopic examination of a microbial culture revealed fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that get violet-blue Gram's stain. What microorganisms were revealed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridia. Fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that stain violet-blue with Gram's stain are characteristic of Clostridia. Clostridia are anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria known for their ability to form spores and cause diseases such as tetanus and botulism. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are spherical, not fusiform, and typically do not form spores. C: Spirochaete are spiral-shaped bacteria and do not typically form spores. D: Actinomycete are filamentous bacteria that do not typically form spores and do not stain violet-blue with Gram's stain.

Question 2 of 9

In the micropreparation made from patient's regional lymph node punctate and stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa method, the doctor found out thin microorganisms with 12-14 equal ringlets and pale- pink sharp pointes 10-13 mkm in length. The pathogen of what disease is it about?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The thin microorganisms described with 12-14 equal ringlets and pale-pink sharp points are characteristic of Borrelia spirochetes, the causative agent of relapsing fever. The ringlet appearance corresponds to the characteristic coiled structure of Borrelia spirochetes. The length of 10-13 mkm falls within the typical size range of Borrelia spirochetes. This pathogen is commonly identified in Romanovsky-Giemsa stained samples from patients with relapsing fever. Summary of other choices: A: Leishmaniasis - Leishmania parasites are larger and do not have the described ringlets or pale-pink sharp points. B: Leptospirosis - Leptospira bacteria are not described as having ringlets or pale-pink sharp points. C: Surra - Surra is caused by Trypanosoma evansi, and the description does not match the characteristics of this parasite.

Question 3 of 9

The main structure components of Viruses are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. This genetic material carries instructions for viral replication. Proteins are also essential components of viruses, serving various functions like facilitating viral entry into host cells. Option A is incorrect as lipids are not main components of viruses. Option B is incorrect as lipids are not typically found in the main structure of viruses. Option D is incorrect as lipids are not primary components of viruses, and glycoproteins are not always present in the main structure of viruses.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with fever, headache, and neck stiffness had cerebrospinal fluid microscopy revealing Gram-negative diplococci. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults and adolescents. It is known for causing fever, headache, and neck stiffness. The other choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae, are not typically Gram-negative diplococci and are not commonly associated with the symptoms described. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive coccus, Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.

Question 6 of 9

Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is a disease caused by a protozoan?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii. The rationale for this is that protozoa are single-celled organisms that can cause diseases in humans. Cat scratch disease (A) is caused by a bacterium, Bartonella henselae. Relapsing fever (C) is caused by the bacterium Borrelia recurrentis. Plague (D) is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Therefore, the only choice caused by a protozoan is toxoplasmosis, making it the correct answer.

Question 8 of 9

Agglutination reaction is one of the following

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ascoli ring test. Agglutination reaction in the Ascoli ring test is characterized by the formation of a visible ring at the interface of antigen and antibody. This reaction specifically tests for the presence of specific antibodies against antigens in serum, indicating a recent or current infection. The other options, Western blot, ELISA, and Reaction type Gruber, do not involve the agglutination reaction. Western blot and ELISA are immunoassay techniques that detect specific antibodies or antigens, while Reaction type Gruber is not a recognized method in immunology. Therefore, the Ascoli ring test is the correct choice for a test involving agglutination reaction.

Question 9 of 9

Mesophylic bacteria are with temperature optimum:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (25-37 °C) because mesophilic bacteria thrive best at moderate temperatures typical of most environments, making 25-37 °C their optimum range. This range allows for optimal enzyme activity and growth. Choice B (55-65 °C) is incorrect as it is more suitable for thermophilic bacteria. Choice C (15-18 °C) is too low for mesophiles to thrive efficiently. Choice D (38-45 °C) is too high and is more suitable for thermophiles. Ultimately, the correct answer aligns with the typical temperature range where mesophilic bacteria are most active and abundant.

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