ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microscopic examination of a Gramstained scrape from patient's tongue revealed oval, round, elongated chains of dark-violet gemmating cells. What disease can be caused by this causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Oval, round, elongated chains of gemmating cells indicate yeast-like budding cells seen in Candida species. Step 2: Candidosis is caused by Candida species, which is commonly found in the oral cavity and can cause infections on the tongue. Step 3: Candidosis presents as white patches or plaques on the tongue. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Candidosis. Summary: B: Actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces species, which are filamentous bacteria, not oval budding cells. C: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which appears as gram-positive rods in chains, not oval budding cells. D: Staphylococcal infections are caused by Staphylococcus species, which appear as clusters of cocci, not oval budding cells.
Question 2 of 9
Another term for spontaneous generation is __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: abiogenesis. Spontaneous generation refers to the idea that living organisms can arise from non-living matter, which was disproven by Louis Pasteur. Abiogenesis specifically refers to the origin of life from non-living matter, making it synonymous with spontaneous generation. Biogenesis (A) is the principle that living organisms only come from other living organisms. Evolution (C) is the process of gradual change in species over time. Spontaneity (D) refers to happening without external cause and is not directly related to the concept of spontaneous generation.
Question 3 of 9
A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy has a child with multiple congenital defects. This is a result of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teratogenesis. Teratogenesis refers to the process of abnormal development of the fetus leading to congenital defects due to exposure to harmful agents during pregnancy. In this case, toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy can lead to teratogenesis, causing multiple congenital defects in the child. Other choices are incorrect because B: Cancerogenesis refers to the process of cancer formation, C: Recombination is a genetic process unrelated to congenital defects, and D: Chemical mutagenesis refers to mutations caused by chemical agents, not necessarily congenital defects.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a neurotoxin that causes paralysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the botulinum neurotoxin, which causes paralysis by blocking the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not paralysis. Escherichia coli is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not paralysis. Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not paralysis. Therefore, Clostridium botulinum is the correct choice based on its well-known association with paralysis due to botulinum neurotoxin production.
Question 5 of 9
Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and are embedded in a matrix. This is the most appropriate term as it specifically describes the organization of various species into complex communities on a surface. Colonies (A) refer to groups of cells of the same species, not necessarily multiple species. Ecosystems (C) are broader systems involving interactions between living organisms and their environment. Plagues (D) are outbreaks of disease, not a term used to describe organized microbial communities.
Question 6 of 9
The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.
Question 7 of 9
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.
Question 8 of 9
A 65-year-old patient with fever and a productive cough had a sputum sample revealing Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is commonly associated with pneumonia in elderly patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium that frequently causes pneumonia in individuals with underlying health conditions. It is known for its ability to produce a distinctive mucoid capsule. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Escherichia coli (C) is a common cause of urinary tract infections but is less likely in this case due to the symptoms and sputum sample results. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is another common respiratory pathogen, but in this scenario, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent based on the patient's age, symptoms, and the characteristics of the bacteria described in the sputum sample.
Question 9 of 9
Microscopy of a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by a capsule. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends: characteristic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Surrounded by a capsule: S. pneumoniae is encapsulated, important for virulence. 3. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative rod, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not diplococci.