Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from affected area of mucous membrane of oral cavity revealed bacillus in form of accumulations that looked like a pack of cigarettes. Ziehl-Neelsen staining gives them red colour. What kind of pathogenic organism was most likely revealed in tissue sampling?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: M.tuberculosis. The description of bacillus in the form of accumulations resembling a pack of cigarettes and staining red with Ziehl-Neelsen staining is characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M.leprae (Choice A) is associated with leprosy and does not typically appear as described. A.bovis (Choice C) is a type of Mycobacterium but is not typically found in the oral cavity. A.israilii (Choice D) is not associated with the characteristics mentioned in the question. Therefore, based on the specific characteristics described, M.tuberculosis is the most likely pathogenic organism revealed in the tissue sampling.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Immunity): 1. Immunity refers to the body's ability to defend against foreign agents. 2. Homeostasis is the state of steady internal conditions, not specifically related to defense. 3. Infection is the invasion and multiplication of pathogens, not the overall defense mechanism. 4. Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits without harming the other.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vibrio. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria. These bacteria produce a toxin that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Escherichia (choice A) and Salmonella (choice B) are known for causing other types of gastrointestinal infections but not cholera. Acinetobacter (choice D) typically causes respiratory infections, not gastrointestinal illnesses like cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is Vibrio as it is specifically associated with cholera.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The soil is low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value, which indicates that the contamination is recent. Step 2: The soil is contaminated according to coli titer, suggesting the presence of coliform bacteria typically found in fresh fecal matter. Step 3: The soil is low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens), which is an indicator of recent fecal contamination. Step 4: Based on the above steps, the correct answer is A: Fresh fecal contamination, as the presence of coliform bacteria and recent anaerobe titer levels point to recent fecal contamination. Summary: B: Old fecal contamination - Incorrect because the indicators suggest recent contamination. C: Insufficient intensity of soil humification - Incorrect as it is not related to the specific indicators mentioned in the question. D: Constant entry of organic protein contaminations - Incorrect as the indicators point towards fecal contamination, not protein

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for about 80-85% of cases. S. enterica and P. aeruginosa are less common but can still infect the urinary tract under certain circumstances. Therefore, all three bacteria can potentially cause UTIs, making option D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not cover the full range of bacteria known to cause UTIs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaginitis is a common bacterial infection in the female reproductive system. 2. Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by certain bacterial infections. 3. Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium often due to bacterial infections. 4. Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, commonly caused by bacteria. Summary: - Choice B: Nephritis is a kidney infection, not related to female reproductive system infections. - Choice C: Nephritis and cystitis are not specific to the female reproductive system. - Choice D: Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically considered part of female reproductive system infections.