Microscopic analysis of dental plaque revealed flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage. What microorganism is likely present?

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Question 1 of 9

Microscopic analysis of dental plaque revealed flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage. What microorganism is likely present?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan commonly found in the oral cavity and does not have a cyst stage. This organism typically inhabits the gingival crevices and can be identified in dental plaque samples. Entamoeba gingivalis (B) is an amoeba and does not have flagella. Balantidium coli (C) is a ciliated protozoan that infects the intestines, not the oral cavity. Giardia lamblia (D) is a flagellated protozoan that infects the intestines and has a distinct cyst stage. Therefore, the presence of flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage in dental plaque indicates Trichomonas tenax is likely present.

Question 2 of 9

The process of bacterial conjugation involves:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct transfer of DNA between two bacterial cells. In bacterial conjugation, genetic material is transferred directly from one bacterial cell to another through a conjugative pilus. This process involves physical contact between the cells, followed by the transfer of plasmid DNA or chromosomal DNA. This mechanism allows for the exchange of genetic information between bacteria, leading to genetic diversity. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: DNA transfer via bacteriophage - Bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria and transfers its genetic material, but this is not the mechanism involved in bacterial conjugation. B: Uptake of naked DNA from the environment - This process is known as transformation, where bacteria take up free DNA from the environment, but it is not specific to bacterial conjugation. D: Binary fission - Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria where a single cell divides into two identical cells, and it is not related to the process

Question 3 of 9

Endotoxins are released upon:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. When these bacteria undergo cell lysis, the endotoxins are released, causing harmful effects. This process does not occur during bacterial replication (choice A), antibody production (choice C), or formation of spores (choice D). Bacterial replication involves the creation of new bacterial cells, not the release of endotoxins. Antibody production is the immune response to pathogens, not the direct cause of endotoxin release. Spores are dormant structures formed by some bacteria, which are not directly related to the release of endotoxins.

Question 4 of 9

The optimal PH for most pathogenic bacteria and viruses is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (7.2-7.4) because most pathogenic bacteria and viruses thrive in a neutral pH environment close to 7.0. This pH range is optimal for their growth and survival. Choice A (5.0-5.5) is too acidic for most pathogens. Choice B (8.0-9.6) is too alkaline, which is not conducive for their survival. Choice D (4.2-4.4) is also too acidic and would likely inhibit the growth of pathogenic bacteria and viruses. Thus, a pH range of 7.2-7.4 provides the most suitable conditions for their proliferation.

Question 5 of 9

Risk factor for the development of infection is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: all of them. Malignant disease weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Cytostatic therapy suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Premature birth can lead to underdeveloped immune systems, making babies more prone to infections. Therefore, all three choices are risk factors for the development of infections. Other choices are incorrect because each individual risk factor listed contributes to an increased susceptibility to infections.

Question 6 of 9

Which structure allows bacteria to survive in adverse conditions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Endospore. Endospores are dormant, tough, and non-reproductive structures formed by certain bacteria as a response to unfavorable conditions. They help bacteria survive harsh environments such as extreme temperatures, desiccation, and exposure to harmful chemicals. The other choices, Flagella (A), Capsule (B), and Pili (D), do not directly contribute to bacterial survival in adverse conditions. Flagella aid in bacterial movement, capsules provide protection from immune system attacks, and pili are involved in attachment to surfaces or other cells. Endospores are specifically designed for survival during unfavorable conditions, making them the correct choice in this scenario.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Shigella dysenteriae produces Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 60S ribosomal subunit. This disrupts the translation process, leading to cell death. Escherichia coli (choice B) does not produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis. Clostridium tetani (choice C) produces tetanospasmin, which affects the nervous system. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) produces toxins that cause food poisoning but do not inhibit protein synthesis.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following antibodies is synthesized by the infant soon after birth?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM is the first antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth. It is produced by B cells in response to initial exposure to antigens. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG is transferred from mother to fetus, and IgD functions in the early stages of B cell development. Therefore, IgM is the most suitable choice as the antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth.

Question 9 of 9

Patients after transplantation of allogeneic stem cells are monitored periodically for reactivation of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CMV. Patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation are monitored for CMV reactivation due to its potential to cause severe complications in immunocompromised individuals. CMV can lead to organ damage and even mortality in these patients. Monitoring for CMV reactivation allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Incorrect Choices: A: HAV - Hepatitis A virus reactivation is not commonly monitored in post-transplant patients. C: Rubella virus - Rubella is not a common concern for reactivation in this patient population. D: Measles virus - Measles reactivation is not typically monitored in these patients.

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