ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and are embedded in a matrix. This is the most appropriate term as it specifically describes the organization of various species into complex communities on a surface. Colonies (A) refer to groups of cells of the same species, not necessarily multiple species. Ecosystems (C) are broader systems involving interactions between living organisms and their environment. Plagues (D) are outbreaks of disease, not a term used to describe organized microbial communities.
Question 2 of 9
Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and are embedded in a matrix. This is the most appropriate term as it specifically describes the organization of various species into complex communities on a surface. Colonies (A) refer to groups of cells of the same species, not necessarily multiple species. Ecosystems (C) are broader systems involving interactions between living organisms and their environment. Plagues (D) are outbreaks of disease, not a term used to describe organized microbial communities.
Question 3 of 9
A fecal smear from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. The presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite causing amoebic dysentery. It forms cysts with four nuclei before maturing into trophozoites. Balantidium coli (B) is a ciliated protozoan causing balantidiasis, not known for four-nuclei cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) forms cysts with two nuclei, causing giardiasis. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human colon, not associated with four-nuclei cysts.
Question 4 of 9
Gram (+) bacteria ... MG-ribonucleate and Mg. deoxyribonucleate in:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, proportion 4:1. Gram (+) bacteria have a higher ratio of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate because ribosomal RNA is more abundant in actively growing bacterial cells. This higher proportion of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate is essential for protein synthesis and growth. The other choices are incorrect because they do not reflect the higher ratio of ribosomal RNA to DNA in Gram (+) bacteria, which is crucial for their metabolic activities and cellular functions.
Question 5 of 9
Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.
Question 6 of 9
A Gram-stained sputum smear revealed Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores. The patient presented with severe pneumonia. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores on the Gram stain indicates Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause severe pneumonia. Clostridium tetani does not typically cause pneumonia but rather tetanus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive cocci, not rods. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with pneumonia, but it does not form central spores.
Question 7 of 9
A 33 year old patient was delivered to the infectious diseases department on the 7-th day of disease. He complained about great weakness, high temperature, pain in the lumbar area and leg muscles, icteritiousness, dark color of urine, headache. The acute disease started with chill, body temperature rise up to 40oC, headache, pain in the lumbar area and sural muscles. Icterus turned up on the 4th day, nasal and scleral haemorrhages came on the 5th day. Fever has lasted for 6 days. Diuresis - 200 ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Leptospirosis. The symptoms described align with the classic presentation of Leptospirosis, such as fever, muscle pain, headache, jaundice, and hemorrhages. The initial symptoms of chills, high fever, and muscle pain followed by jaundice and hemorrhages are characteristic of Leptospirosis. The presence of dark urine and low diuresis also point towards kidney involvement, which is common in Leptospirosis due to renal failure. Additionally, the patient's history of potential exposure to contaminated water or soil supports the diagnosis, as Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through contact with infected animal urine. Summary of other choices: - Typhoid fever typically presents with sustained fever, abdominal pain, and constipation, not matching the symptoms described. - Virus A hepatitis usually presents with jaundice, but other symptoms such as muscle pain and hemorrhages are not typical. - Sepsis is a systemic response
Question 8 of 9
A laboratory received a food product that had been taken from the focus of food poisoning and presumably contained botulinum toxin. To identify the type of toxin, the neutralization reaction must be performed on white mice. What biological product is used in this reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic serum. In the neutralization reaction to identify botulinum toxin, antitoxic serum is used to neutralize the toxin in white mice. Antitoxic serum contains antibodies that specifically target and neutralize the botulinum toxin. Normal serum (B) does not contain the necessary antibodies to neutralize the toxin. Antibacterial serum (C) is not effective against toxins like botulinum. Diagnosticum (D) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the biological product required for this reaction.
Question 9 of 9
For treatment of Anthrax are used
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the treatment for Anthrax involves using antibiotics such as penicillins, tetracyclines, and macrolides to target the bacteria. Anti-anthrax gamma-globulins and immune-serum are used to provide passive immunity, but they are not the primary treatment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the necessary components for treating Anthrax. Overall, using a combination of antibiotics and immune-based treatments like gamma-globulins and immune-serum provides a comprehensive approach to managing Anthrax infection.